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It seems quite odd that Shakespeare during the plague should be homebound and in his sense of isolation at not being able to act would write poetry about his love of another man. I can imagine him writing poetry as now his art is not being written for the masses to be put on stage and the venacular audience but as that highest art form of poetry. Still for he, who was a hetrosexual, to devote two thirds of the sonnets to his love of this male youth and a third to the other part of the love triangle, the physical love that they both had for the dark woman, seems quite odd. Does someone have a better understanding of this situation than I do?

2006-09-08 02:17:53 · 4 answers · asked by Steven S 2 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

4 answers

shakespeare's sonnets are (in my opinion) his best work. the theory about this "guy" and this "dark lady" whom he talks about is all mere speculation. there is no substantial proof. besides, who cares about shakespeare's personal life?! the work should speak for itslef. the "author is dead" approach in understanding literature still holds as the best way to appreciate the work.

2006-09-08 04:08:11 · answer #1 · answered by WWMD 2 · 1 0

The type of love that he expresses is not necessarily romantic. I've always read those sonnets as an expression of gratitude toward his patron who supported him while the Globe was in operation as well as during the times when it had to be closed and Shakespeare was out of work. This patron's identity has been under speculation for a long time, but at the time he was known as Lord Chamberlain. Many scholars have guessed that he was possibly Edward de Vere, the earl of Southampton. Only in the late twentieth century have readers assumed a homosexual relationship, for which there is only hypothetical evidence.

2006-09-08 02:27:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

There is no actual proof that Shakespeare was heterosexual, and at the time he wrote the sonnets there were still practices of pederastic type relationships.Because everything sexual in the Renaissance was considered sodomy (even a woman taking a different position,) it is not hard to believe that Shakespeare may have had relations with another man. I know there was an artist he was very fond of, unfortunately it's still early and I can't remember the man's name. In one of the earlier sonnets he actually parises the young man's artwork, or alludes to one of his works. There is also evidence that he contracted Syphilis from a mistress he took later in his life. The boundaries of gender and sexuality in nearly all of Shakespeare's work are stretched beyond belief if you consider the fact that at that time he was deliberately writing women's roles with men in mind. Think of how many different characters he wrote that were men dressed as women who dressed as men and then found need to dress as women again.

2006-09-08 02:26:56 · answer #3 · answered by jennybeanses 3 · 1 0

truly its no longer very strong it seems which incorporates you attempt to annoying yet ive study countless your diverse stuff so this poem desires artwork you may want to tke my suggestion or you may want to ignore about about it or you may want to in straightforward words seem ahead to the satisfied those who do no longer truly write say thats awsome even regardless of the easy undeniable reality that it desires artwork truly:)

2016-11-25 20:31:08 · answer #4 · answered by shelby 4 · 0 0

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