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there is a combine agriculture land of 4 bigha.the owner of this land are two brothers. x&y . they have the compromise on stamp paper that x will have 2 bigha towards south and y will have 2 bigha towards north side in 1998.now the land was used by z with some payment to x&y for 10 years. now z purchases the land from y south side in 2002 at the rate Rs.80,000. in the registry no side was mentioned. s purchases the land from y in 2006 at the rate 3,00,000 because north side has two roads with the boundary off land also mentioning the side north in the registry.now z wants the land towards north side .what is the solution. who will get the land towards north side.please help me i am s.z is not doing unjustice with me

2006-09-07 20:03:04 · 3 answers · asked by KrishanRam(Jitendra k) 3 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

Z PURCHASED THE SOUTH SIDE OF THE LAND FROM Y SINCE Y WAS THE OWNER OF NORTH SIDE THE SALE DEED IN FAVOUR OF Z IS VOID IN THE LIGHT OF THE STAMP PAPER AGREEMENT BETWEEN X AND Y ABOUT THEIR RESPECTIVE SIDES IF THIS DOCUMENT IS ALSO REGISTERED THEN THE PURCHASE MADE BY S FROM Y OF THE NORTH SIDE IS LEGITIMATE. AND S IS THE RIGHTFUL OWNER OF THE NORTH SIDE.

2006-09-07 21:07:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Your message is unclear. But in most areas, the use and working of land for a period of time often establishes rights to the property, but there are many exceptions to this, crown or government land, etc.

2006-09-07 21:03:40 · answer #2 · answered by Frank 6 · 0 0

data is incorrect. unless x sells his share the entire plot cannot go to 's'. if 'y' has sold in 2002, he cannot again sell in 2006.

2006-09-07 21:10:01 · answer #3 · answered by HMG M 3 · 0 0

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