yes, starting from 0-100 was the 1st century, 101-200 was the second century, so then 1301-1400 would be the 14th century. At least, that's the idea behind it
2006-09-07 16:17:56
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answer #1
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answered by cinquefoil_solis 3
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The 14th century is almost the 1300s -- but not quite. There is 99 year overlap between the two.
The first century goes from the year 1 to the year 100.
(there was no year zero)
The second century goes from year 101 to 200.
. . .
The 14th century goes from year 1301 to 1400.
. . .
The 20th century started on January 1, 1901 and ended on December 31, 2000.
The 21st century (third millenium) started on January 1, 2001.
All those people who had millenium parties on December 31, 1999 were a year off.
2006-09-07 16:19:43
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answer #2
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answered by Ranto 7
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Yup. I know it is confusing. Try to think of it this way. The "century" is always one higher than the 100s. So the 14th century is the 1300s. The 21st century is the 2000s.
2006-09-07 16:18:52
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answer #3
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answered by Brynn317 2
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Yes... just think of it this way... the years 1-100 were the first century... so take the first 2 numbers of the year (with 4 numbers) and add 1, That's how come we're in the 21st century now
2006-09-07 16:39:07
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answer #4
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answered by Heidi D 3
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Yes. Year 1 to 99 was the first century Common Era.
2006-09-07 16:21:41
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answer #5
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answered by Marisa & Laurence D 2
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Yes
2006-09-07 16:16:06
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes it is. 2006=21st century.
2006-09-07 16:17:14
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answer #7
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answered by pvpd73127 4
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yep 1900s =20th century 1800s=19th century etc...
2006-09-07 16:18:37
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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yes
2006-09-07 16:17:01
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answer #9
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answered by dudeman 2
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You're correct.
2006-09-07 16:20:56
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answer #10
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answered by monkey jacket 4
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