2006-09-07 11:42:53 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Good answers so far. However, since this is in the philosophy section, let's consider there is nothing at all. How can you count or number what does not exist.
2006-09-07 12:13:56 · answer #1 · answered by alwaysthinkin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1+1=4-2
2006-09-07 11:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2006-09-07 11:46:14 · answer #3 · answered by Princess 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2006-09-07 11:44:19 · answer #4 · answered by neopets1234554321 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
10
2006-09-07 11:47:04 · answer #5 · answered by shazam 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Last time I checked 1+1 equals 2.
2006-09-07 11:48:08 · answer #6 · answered by Ai-Shiteru 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
11
2006-09-07 11:47:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It 2.
2006-09-07 12:13:38 · answer #8 · answered by Tori 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"The whole is more than the sum of its parts." -Aristotle
If 1 = 1+ N, then:
1 + 1 = (1 + N) + (1 + N) = 2 + 2N
"When in love, one and one is one." -Sartre
1 + 1 = 1
Solving for N:
1 + 1 = 1, and
1 + 1 = 2 +2N
1 = 2 + 2N, and
N = -1/2
That means if we stay at half our ego, everything balances out.
2006-09-07 12:53:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't you know that as of today, 1+1 is equal to 7?
2006-09-07 11:48:04 · answer #10 · answered by Travis 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on how you look at it...
in math, you didn't specify negative, or positives so.
1+1= 2
-1 + -1= -2
1+ -1= 0
1 man + 1 woman= 3, (the two of them and the child they make)
2006-09-07 11:58:32 · answer #11 · answered by Joe K 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋