2006-09-07 07:16:37 · 20 answers · asked by april g 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
It is roughly 49.89%.
878 * 3 = 2634 ft / 5280 ft in a mile = .49886363... or 49.89%
2006-09-07 07:18:50 · answer #1 · answered by Martyr2 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Some of the above answers are correct, others are way off the mark.
There are 1760 yards in a mile so what you're wanting to know is 878/1760ths as a percentage.
878 divided by 1760 = 49.88636363 recurring.
2006-09-07 07:29:45 · answer #2 · answered by Trevor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
878 yards = 2634 feet
5280 feet = 1 mile
You can figure out the rest
2006-09-07 07:19:35 · answer #3 · answered by Stephen R 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 yard=3 feet
878 yards=878*3feet=2634feet.
1 mile=5280feet=100%(say)
2634feet=263400/5280%
=49.88636% of a mile is 878 yards.
2006-09-07 07:30:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
878/1760 into 100=49.89% as there are 1760 yards in a mile
2006-09-07 07:20:32 · answer #5 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 mile = 1760 yards
(878/1760) = (439/880)
(439/880) * 100 = 49.8863636363636
ANS : 49.8864% or about 50%
2006-09-07 07:51:47 · answer #6 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5120 feet in a mile?
3 feet in a yard?
So, 3 * 878/5120 :
2634/5120 = 1317/2560
Then multiply by 100 to get a percent.
2006-09-07 07:39:57 · answer #7 · answered by tbolling2 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just enter
878 yards in miles
in the Google search box and you will see it is about 50%.
2006-09-07 07:23:38 · answer #8 · answered by Barkley Hound 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
878/1760 = approximately 56.3 percent.
2006-09-07 07:18:03 · answer #9 · answered by CSUFGrad2006 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Approximately 49.89%
2006-09-07 07:20:36 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋