2006-09-06 22:18:34 · 19 answers · asked by paramjyoti_sen 1 in Sports ➔ Cricket
The result has already been announced by the umpires/match referee. Irrespective of the outcome of the ball tampering judgement, the result would remain the same.
It would be a testing time for Darrel Hair.
2006-09-07 22:48:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The result will stand as it is as the game was forfeited by Pakistan and the forensic test has nothing to do with the result of the test match. The decision has been taken already.
Anyway, if the ball is not found to be tampered, ICC better give Darrel Hair a few penny and tell him " Uncle, Thank you..now you better sit at home and watch cricket in TV "
2006-09-07 08:31:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The match is over and has been awarded to England. The decision of forensic lab will just identify whom to blame and who is to suffer.
If the ball was tampered then Inzamam will have to pay, if not is definitely Hair (I'm sure its Hair's fault).
And about awarding the match to England, it was Hair's fault. If you read the rules for forfieting a match, the umpire has to talk to both the CAPTAINS and have to take their decision, especially the decision of the Captain whose team is forfeiting the game, then inform to the match refree and finally the match refree forfiets the match. But on the contrary, Hair did it all itself. Whereas as informed by the commentators, Pakistan had all the rights to delay the start as a protest to the blame (Ball Tampering) imployed on them by the umpire. And mind you my friend, 5 runs was awarded to England for ball being tampered!!!
2006-09-07 06:13:00 · answer #3 · answered by rockstar4friendship 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The decision will stay and will not be reversed as the decision to abandon the match was not taken only because of ball tampering, but due to subsequent incidents. While ball tampering
issue was instrumental for subsequent incidents, refusal of Pakistan team to take to the field on the decision of umpire to give 5 penalty runs to England cannot be justified. If unjustice was done to them, they should have lodged complaint to ICC or Mmatch referee after the game was over instead of refusing to take the field instantly
2006-09-06 22:43:49 · answer #4 · answered by vakayil k 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Pakistan has already suffered the loss and whatever the decision they take after 'chemical analysis' of the ball that doesn't matter, Pakistan is the innocent party in this case and even if the decision goes in their favor I dont think that ICC will rule that contoversial Oval Test match as a 'draw'
2006-09-07 02:54:13 · answer #5 · answered by Ω Nookey™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
pakistan should have turned up for play. they didn't and so they lost the match. it is immaterial as to whether ball was tampered or not. however the decision regarding ball tampering should be taken by umpire, third umpire or at most by match refree. can it be proved that a scratch on ball is made by fingers and not by striking on ground or bat or stump. Forensic lab cannot establish anything.
2006-09-06 22:31:30 · answer #6 · answered by dilipagr_2000 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Pakistan forfeited by not coming out to play. In contravention of law 42.9 (wasting time) they were penalised 5 runs as a warning, but then still refused to play, so they forfeited.
The result had nothing to do with whether the ball was tampered with or not...
2006-09-06 22:20:57 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Now, let them prove anything in the lab,
but the decision will not change.
It is like whoever you may be, Sourav
Ganguly will never be taken back in to
the team. Once a decision was taken,
it will be implemented in toto.
Can you verify my 1st part of the answer
from Sourov- Bangaleer Gourov- Harin er
Koustobh- Desher Bojha O Mithyabadee.
2006-09-07 00:17:35 · answer #8 · answered by pianist 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If the ball is found to be non tampered, the match should resume from where it was left.....
2006-09-07 03:56:51 · answer #9 · answered by sumeet_aurora 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See one thing ,,, without tampering a cricket ball it will not swind and especially reverse swing.
when reverse swing happens it means that its tampered.
leave the recent incident and tell me without reverse swing how many matches won by any team ??????????
2006-09-06 22:28:52 · answer #10 · answered by neernar 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋