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11 answers

No. It would be an evolutionary dead end and would be lost from the gene pool.

2006-09-06 22:50:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Sure. We know there are species where the *majority* of individuals never have sex and never reproduce -- bees. The explanation has been that the work the asexual individuals do makes it more likely that their siblings will reproduce, so the gene has overall fitness and survives. Nobody yet has figured out exactly what fitness the hypothetical "gay gene" provides; once we figure out that we can see if a "asexual" gene would also do the same job. Another problem is that how do we find out who is "asexual" as opposed to "just haven't found the right guy/girl"?

2006-09-07 03:46:32 · answer #2 · answered by KimballKinnison 2 · 0 0

roflmao

now when you write "asexual" are you referring to budding or that stuff that has somehow made it into the media? It'd be great if I could reproduce asexually. Just bud off another perfect copy of me and raise it... or raise an army!

Somehow I gather you're referring to that other fluff. I'm sure that homosexuality and "asexuality" have some biological basis. But as to being confined or expressed to a single gene. I highly doubt it's that simple.

It's possible that some biochemical pathways or whatnot were activated or blocked (environmental or not) that affected the individual's development into a homosexual or "asexual".

2006-09-07 04:07:30 · answer #3 · answered by barron 2 · 0 0

well actually i think there is no gene making people homosexual . what makes a man be interested in a man is his environment, just that when you are a man or a woman you are a man or a woman , very simple . human body can not accept both sex genes at the same time , that's why i say a homosexual gene is not valid,

2006-09-07 03:54:11 · answer #4 · answered by pashi 2 · 0 1

There is no homosexual gene. Since nearly all humans get involved with reproduction, I'm betting there is no asexual gene, either.

2006-09-07 03:56:18 · answer #5 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 1

I don't really believe the gene theory.. both asexuality and homosexuality could be explained by hormone release issues in the brain.

2006-09-07 03:47:13 · answer #6 · answered by GwokStar 2 · 1 1

probably not but who knows, there is no proof that A sexuals are really such a thing and not just other factors...and they have not found a gene to cause homosexuality either..

2006-09-07 03:47:50 · answer #7 · answered by Mommadog 6 · 0 0

Be sure that their is NO single scientific experiment proving that homosexuality is caused by genetic differences, it is not, it is a mental, psycological illnes that can be treated...

their is no gay gene..

2006-09-07 10:35:11 · answer #8 · answered by malaysia 2 · 0 1

if there was a homosexual gene, then it would be hereditary-and what sense would that make?

2006-09-07 04:48:43 · answer #9 · answered by mistshevious 2 · 0 1

There's no such thing as either! And the second one makes no sense at all. It's not even possible. Since when has a man given birth to a girl? Or have you heard of a girl who spurts a peenis out from her vaggina?

2006-09-07 03:46:56 · answer #10 · answered by Redeemer 5 · 0 4

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