by removing the flea LOL
2006-09-10 05:31:31
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answer #1
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answered by G♥♥G♥♥ღ 4
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Dividing a by b is the same thing as multiplying a by the inverse of b. In this case, dividing 0 by 15 is the same thing as multiplying 0 by (1/15). 0 times (1/15) is what 0 times anything is... 0 as well.
Or, you can look at it algebraically, though I'm not sure it's simpler that way...
--- 0/15 = x
--- 0 = x * 15
What number can x be that if you multiplied it by 15 would wind up with 0? Only 0 fits there.
2006-09-06 12:47:47
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answer #2
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answered by Kyrix 6
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You can think of this problem pragmatically. Think of the lower number, the denominator, as "dividing something into this many equal parts" and the upper number, the numerator, as "having this many of the parts". So for example, 1/4 is equivalent to "dividing something into four parts, then taking one of those parts". The result is having one fourth of the original item.
In your example, you are dividing an item into 15 equal parts, but then taking none of those parts. This results is your having nothing of the original item.
You can extend this to cover any fraction. It doesn't matter how many parts you divide an item into, if you take zero of those parts in the end, you will always end up with none of the original item.
2006-09-06 12:56:09
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answer #3
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answered by stellarfirefly 3
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the top number could be 3 things.
Negative, which would be imposible, positive which would give you a number greater than zero, and zero, which will always give you a 0 result. this is true for any value on the bottem
2006-09-06 12:47:36
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answer #4
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answered by Andrew M 3
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0/15 is only zero. better to say that 0/(any no.) is always zero.
but zero is not the divisor of itself.
as zero/zero is not defined.
2006-09-06 12:58:03
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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I put that equation in my calculator and it said the answer was 0. My calculator never lied to me before!
2006-09-06 12:49:03
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answer #6
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answered by Michael S 4
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