2006-09-06 03:05:10 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
neither
2006-09-06 03:07:14 · answer #1 · answered by Dr Dee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
True.... it say right there in the statement the the statement is false so it has to be false.
2006-09-06 14:22:19 · answer #2 · answered by Tracy J 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the answer is both. this statement is false too you but true for the rest of us do too the fact that this one person's statement is false would then make the rest of the world believe that the false statement is true.
2006-09-06 10:37:31 · answer #3 · answered by dragon_god7 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This leads to a well-known paradox, so
"This statement is false" is not a statement!
Recall the similar paradox about the barber.
The answer is that no such barber exists.
2006-09-06 10:27:43 · answer #4 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Undetermined.
Kurt Godel's "Incompleteness Theorem" basically states that in any complete system, there will always be things that cannot be proven from within the system.
your statement cannot be proven either way, within the realm of logic as we know it. There is nothing wrong with that.
2006-09-06 10:33:48 · answer #5 · answered by AntoineBachmann 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-09-06 10:08:07 · answer #6 · answered by RayRay 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Which statement?
2006-09-06 10:08:54 · answer #7 · answered by female_lizzzzzard 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If its false then it has to be false.
2006-09-06 10:24:45 · answer #8 · answered by Mr X 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither a rather well known paradox
2006-09-06 10:10:07 · answer #9 · answered by amandeep s 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not enough information.
2006-09-06 11:52:51 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it has to be true
2006-09-06 10:08:07 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋