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how do they justify the claim against the fact that they started it and invaded first, would they have given land back now if at the end of hostillities they occupied land or if they had succeded ,would they now allow the reformation of they Jewish State,also how do they stand on the issue of the land being palastinian when records show the land was occupied by Jews hundreds of years before the Romans and when there profit came about he actualy promoted peacfull living with the jews.

2006-09-05 22:26:40 · 6 answers · asked by Matthew 3 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

6 answers

I am of the opinion that possession is 90% of the law. I don't see the U.S. giving all this land back to the Native Americans any time soon either.

2006-09-05 22:33:03 · answer #1 · answered by Christopher B 6 · 3 1

There are 3 separate Arab claims on territory:
1. the Palestinians claim all the land that belonged to Jordan before the war of 1967. they also have claims on the land of Israel proper before 1967 and the return of the Palestinian refugees from 1948 and their descendants to the places where they lived before 1948, which is most of Israel.
2. The Syrians claim the Golan heights, including some marginal areas that were taken by the Syrians in the period 1948-1967.
3. Lebanon / Syria claim a small territory a few square mile called "shabba farms" but they (Syria & Lebanon) are undecided to whom this territory belong.

2006-09-06 05:44:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In ancient times there were two kingdoms of jews, judah and israel. After the assyrian conquest they were banished from there to babylon.

In modern times, after first world war, the regions of palestine and transjordan were taken away from ottomans and given to Britain as protectorates by the league of nations. At that time, though there is no accurate estimate, but the population of christians and jews were the same, that is, roughly about 50,000 each. While muslim arabs were in majority there.

In 1914, before the start of first world war, Britain passed the 'Balfour declaration' by virtue of which they promised the jewish diaspora a state of their own, in order to gain their support in the war.

After the war Britain fulfilled its promise and all the jews from eastern europe and all over the world migrated to their promised land, Thus on historical grounds the Arabs have a better claim to Palestine than Israel.

2006-09-06 06:09:12 · answer #3 · answered by Rustic 4 · 1 0

The argument that Jews lived or occupied land hundreds of years before Romans can't stand, because they didn't live there for more than 2000 years (or they lived there in minority for 2000 years). Jews can't claim this land because of that. Or... American Native should claim country of their own in USA....

2006-09-06 05:46:29 · answer #4 · answered by nelli 4 · 1 0

I cannot read all that. That land is unfortunately the holyland of all 3 major relgions. It is problematic. It is far too complex for just this little bit of space. How about reading a whole history book on it?

2006-09-06 05:33:04 · answer #5 · answered by adobeprincess 6 · 2 0

ISREAL IS A NO MAN'S LAND....!!!

2006-09-06 05:35:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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