Please provide any references with your answers (i.e. court cases, rulings, opinions by the court, pending legislature).
2006-09-05 17:54:51 · 9 answers · asked by Lonewolf 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
There must be some components of a marriage that are enforcable by contract. Otherwise, how could one spouse be awarded alimony (civil damages) based upon the misconduct of the other?
Nevertheless, what a court decides does not make or break your relationship with your (ex)spouse. The real divorce happens long before the legal proceedings, about the time someone's trust or hope disappears.
Some advice: try to divorce your personal actions from the legal divorce. Treat her/him as well as you would any other member of your family that might have done something very hurtful to the others.
And you can always wretch later while nobody is looking.
WK
2006-09-05 18:18:18 · answer #1 · answered by olin1963 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Marriage is a contract made in due form of law, by which a free man and a free woman reciprocally engage to live with each other during their joint lives, in the union which ought to exist between husband and wife.
In effect, its a special contract of permanent union between a man and a woman. Ergo, you just have to look at the legal definition of marriage to know that wedding vows are considered expressed contracts enforceable in the court of law.
2006-09-05 18:21:03 · answer #2 · answered by ladyluck 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Marriage is a contract between two people... in essence, a contract to be faithful sexually and otherwise to ones spouse.... if a person cannot fulfill this contract... why the hell would you ever consider their word good on any other contract? I would not consider them trustworthy to do business with unless... they negate the contract legally without breaking it beforehand.
If one party wants to break the marriage contract, it can be done legally... it is called divorce....
2006-09-05 18:02:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. The only time the vows would be considered a binding contract would be with a "covenant wedding." More info here:
http://www.family.org/married/comm/a0017718.cfm
2006-09-05 18:02:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It would be weird to record vows for the purpose of establishing them as a contract. People who think that they need contracts typically use written pre-nuptial agreements, which are legally enforceable.
2006-09-05 18:01:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I used to work at the courthouse and as far as I know, wedding vows are frosting, all you need to get legally married is court issued license and a witness.
2006-09-05 17:59:14 · answer #6 · answered by Princess of the Realm 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Did you prefer to sue your considerable different for violating between the vows? it fairly is gotta be the obey one. it rather is a hard one. i could prefer to sue my considerable different and have the courtroom award that he might desire to place the grimy clothing interior the bog down and do the dishes. i could have a much extra suited to leg to stand on if I had a courtroom order to enforce those products. extraordinarily if he had to chosen between spending the night interior the pokey and doing the dishes.
2016-11-24 23:53:36 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope. all you need to be legally married is a license. people get he religious ceremony confused with the legal act, the two are exclusive. while you may celebrate as many marriage ceremonies in as mayn churches as you want, you need a license for it to be legally binding
2006-09-05 18:00:54 · answer #8 · answered by C_Millionaire 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Why, what did you say?
2006-09-05 18:00:49 · answer #9 · answered by terri m 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋