Aah...please help. I have a feeling this is a suckers' question...if an object is traveling at a constant velocity, wouldn't acceleration equal zero? Since average acceleration= change in velocity/change in time...well, if velocity is constant, the change in velocity is zero, and 0/change in time= 0. I'm rather confused now, though. Help, please?
2006-09-05 13:56:52 · 13 answers · asked by aequitas702 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
You are correct the answer is zero. The answer is NOT 1m/s².
If the acceleration is constant then we have:
Δv/Δt = a
now, as the time interval becomes infinitesimally small the large changes become differentials:
dv/dt = a
this is a separable differential equation which we trivially solve as:
∫dv = ∫adt
where the limits for both integrals are from t=0 to t = t (the final time)
v(t) - v(o) = a(t)
which we customarily write as:
v(t) = vo + at
this expresses the velocity as a function of time.
so, if the acceleration is zero all we are left with is vo, the initial velocity. So there is no need, not to mention it is just wrong, to say that if an object has constant velocity it has an acceleration of 1m/s².
by the way, if you integrate the equation again you get:
x(t) = xo + Vot + 1/2at²
2006-09-05 14:36:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since the velocity is constant, therfore you are technically right except the acceleration is not = 0.
Acceleration for constant veocity is 1m/s²,
Proof : if it were to be zero, then your velocity (velocity = acc leration * time) would be zero, because ANYTHING multiply by zero is ZERO.
Therfore the ANSWER is ONE m/s² (1 m/s²).
Hope you can Understand.
Cheers.
2006-09-05 14:12:13 · answer #2 · answered by isz_rossi 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, it has been a LONG time since I took Physics in college, but I believe you are right, Grasshopper - "In physics or physical science, acceleration (symbol: a) is defined as the rate of change (or derivative with respect to time) of velocity. It is thus a vector quantity with dimension length/time². In SI units, acceleration is measured in meters/second² using an accelerometer."
Now, enough studying. Go out into the courtyard and break some boards!
2006-09-05 14:20:19 · answer #3 · answered by JRob 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are right.. answer is 0. Unless if you calculated from 0 m/s to 0.25 m/s , then the acceleration is not 0 m/s2
2006-09-05 13:59:51 · answer #4 · answered by Mr. Logic 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah I lived in an house above the bar that my mom and dad owned from whilst i became into 4 till i became into 6. Then I moved some miles away and my dad labored on a farm. Then we moved back some million a million/2 years later. And stayed till i became into 10. i do no longer precisely bear in techniques why we moved back.
2016-10-14 09:00:08 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are right. It is a trick question because the acceleration is zero.
2006-09-05 13:58:56 · answer #6 · answered by Plasmapuppy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Zero.
2006-09-05 14:00:06 · answer #7 · answered by barrabas 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It looks like you solved the question yourself. accelaration whether it is positive or negative has to have a change in speed, and your little turtle isn't doing that, so it has no acceleration.
2006-09-05 14:04:16 · answer #8 · answered by Lady 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He has no acceleration. he is moving at a constant rate.
2006-09-05 13:59:05 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if he is moving along the surface of the earth, then his directional motion is changing.
2006-09-05 13:58:23 · answer #10 · answered by s_e_e 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋