let a = b
a² = ab
Multiply both sides by a
a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab
Add (a² - 2ab) to both sides
2(a² - ab) = a² - ab
Factor the left, and collect like terms on the right
2 = 1
Divide both sides by (a² - ab)
2006-09-05 07:13:57
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answer #1
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answered by Ðêù§ 5
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***how is 1=2 is it possible?
my techer told me it is possible but i dont know how to prove it.***
It really depends on what the teacher was talking about. Mathematically speaking one can never be equal to two, that's an impossibility
for sure, mathematically speaking. I suspect
he meant something else or is joking you.
Have a good day.
2006-09-05 19:24:44
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answer #2
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answered by zurioluchi 7
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Cut an apple in half you have two parts which make a whole apple one apple.
Must be like interest from a bank when you take out a loan the interest is calculated by a formula that constantly builds but when you put money in the bank the interest is calculated by a formula that gives a lower yield than the loan formula that also hits a plateau and stays there.
2006-09-05 14:15:11
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answer #3
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answered by Faerieeeiren 4
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Note that the algebra "answers" above divide by (a-b). Since a=b this is dividing by zero and not allowed, so these answers "prove' nothing.
So theoretically there are ways to show 1=2 but we all know logically that this isn't true.
2006-09-05 15:51:58
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Your teacher is apparently wrong.
"1=2: A Proof using Complex Number"
http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/plain/falseProofs/second1eq2.html
The supposed proof is invalid, and that page explains why. This is just a mathematical urban legend.
JMB
2006-09-05 14:18:23
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answer #5
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answered by levyrat 4
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a = b
a^2 = a*b
a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
(a+b) = b
a+a = a
2a = a
2 = 1
2006-09-05 14:14:41
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answer #6
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answered by Professor 3
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1 squared
2006-09-05 14:16:22
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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It happems all the time at a BOGO promotion.
Buy One & Get One Free = Two
If your teacher wants proof, show your teacher your receipt.
2006-09-05 14:23:36
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answer #8
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answered by r0bErT4u 5
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there is a formula to make this work, but I don't remember it. I thin it's based on the idea that 1whole is the same as 2halves (I could be completely wrong there though)
2006-09-05 15:13:08
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answer #9
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answered by Jen J 4
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One whole equals 2 halves.
2006-09-05 15:22:05
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answer #10
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answered by cross-stitch kelly 7
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