Why does ((sin^-1 1.0) *2) = pi?

Question

Why does the (inverse sin 1) times 2 equal pi?

Answer 1

Since 1 is the sine of pi/2. In other words: inverse sine of 1 is pi/2. Obviously the pi/2 multiplied by 2 is equal to pi.

Answer 2

this is only true for 0 <= [sin^(-1) 1 . 2] < 2pi
The sine function reaches a maximum (for real angles) of 1. This happens for the above interval at pi/2
then sin^(-1) 1 = pi/2
then you should immediately realise that pi/2 . 2 = pi as required.
You should care about the interval though.

Hope this helps!

Answer 3

(inverse sin 1) = pi/2 or 90 degrees

Twice that is pi or 180 degrees.

Answer 4

In this equation, the interpretation of the superscript "-1" is different from anywhere else. It does NOT mean (sin(1))^-1. It means "the angle whose sine is 1". That angle is a right angle, or pi/2 radians, so multplying it by 2 gives you pi.

Answer 5

((sin^-1 1.0) *2) = pi

Multiply 1/2 to both sides
sin^-1 1 = pi/2

Get the sin of both sides
sin sin^-1 1 = sin pi/2

OR
sin pi/2 = sin sin^-1 1

Since sin pi/2 = 1 and sin sin^-1 1,
1 = 1

Thus proven that
((sin^-1 1.0) *2) = pi

^_^

Answer 6

C = 2pi * r

C = 360°

360 = 2pi * r

since "r" is irrelevant, since "r" can be anything, and that will not change the fact that the circumference is also 360°

360 = 2pi
pi = 180

180 = sin^-1(1) * 2
90 = sin^-1(1)
sin(90) = 1

Answer 7

Because sin pi/2 = 1.0.

Simple as that.

Answer 8

we know sin(pi/2) =1
so pi/2 = sin^-1 1.0
so pi = 2*sin^-1 1.0

Answer 9

Well, either I'm not understanding the question very well or else your affirmation isn't right.
Please give more detail...

Answer 10

because sin(pi/2) equals one. duh