2006-09-04 18:00:14 · 5 answers · asked by Silver Tortoise 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Other - Family & Relationships
"Perfectly Straight", by definition, is a heterosexual man who is sexually attracted to women - EXCLUSIVELY!
Any guy with these fetishes does NOT qualify as such!!!
2006-09-04 20:29:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Then the guy isn't perfectly straight! I dealt with a similar issue. I find myself being strongly attracted to transexuals and the like, but not to gay men. I'm happily married (to a woman) and she knows all about my desires. For a long time I did the standard american thing and beat myself up over it, and all that. I think it's more of being bi than anything. I'm straight, attracted to women, and to certain men/she-males/trannies/ who look like women with something 'EXTRA'.
And anyone who wants to hate out of their own homophobic fear can kiss off.
2006-09-05 01:10:09 · answer #2 · answered by TonerLow69 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
A "perfectly straight guy" isn't attracted to men. Not to say there is anything wrong with him if he's attracted to men, but he's not "perfectly straight".
I'd think this out and be honest with yourself (or whoever you're referring to should). It will be a lot less painful to deal with when this person is honest with themselves, and not feeling like they should be a "certain way".
Hang in there!
2006-09-05 01:03:50 · answer #3 · answered by Amy N 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If he's attracted to this then he's not straight he's in the closet he's gay.
2006-09-05 01:18:04 · answer #4 · answered by askmeguru21 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perfectly gay!!!!!
2006-09-05 01:01:58 · answer #5 · answered by luvlisteningtomusic 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋