English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Anything can be divided infinitely, including a second. So aren't we then moving through an infinite amount of time every second?
How can that be?

2006-09-04 15:45:48 · 5 answers · asked by J 2 in Science & Mathematics Physics

5 answers

You are right.

Second is just a "unit of time" defined by humans, of course second can be divided into 10 subunits or million subunits or infinite subunits, so if you move by 1 feet in 1 second, it implies that you move 0.5 feet in 0.5 seconds, 10^-3 feet in 10^-3 second and so on. Because macro bodies like humans cannot move quantumly, we always move continuously.

2006-09-04 16:43:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

haha. nope. if each second were divided into infinite fractions, lets say... 1s/ 999999999999999999999999999

obviously the denominator is much bigger than that, then the fraction would be close to 0. probably 0.000000000000000001 or something like that. so no, we would be moving through an infinite amount of tiny tiny fractions of seconds every second, which would still add up to become one second.

2006-09-04 22:51:14 · answer #2 · answered by maczh2002 2 · 0 1

This sounds suspiciously like another paradox with the term "infinite."

If I throw a ball at a wall and in one second, it is halfway to the wall. In the next half second it is half of the distance left to the wall. In the next 1/4 of a second, it is again half of the distance left to the wall - if it keeps going half of the distance left to the wall, it will never hit the wall.

And, as George Carlin asks, if you give me a penny for my thoughts, and I give you my two cents worth, where the hell does the other penny go?

2006-09-05 01:11:59 · answer #3 · answered by LeAnne 7 · 0 0

Here's a question for you. If 1 divided by 0 is zero, and 1 divided by infinity is infinity, what is infinity divided by 0????
This should keep the poor b*stard busy for a quite a while!!!!!

2006-09-04 23:07:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

One second will always be one second no matter how many times you divide it.

2006-09-04 22:59:37 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers