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plz explain as well

2006-09-04 14:05:49 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

17 answers

They are not imaginary, so they must be real.

2006-09-04 14:15:01 · answer #1 · answered by MsMath 7 · 1 0

Pi and 0 are both real numbers. Pi is not an estimate and even if it were it would still be a real number. All rational numbers (those that can be expressed as a whole number with a prime factor) and irrational numbers (those that cannot be represented in this manner) fall into this set (including negatives). Pi is an irrational number that describes a natural proportion based on the circumference of a circle when compared to its radius. Zero (0) is a rational number (although ironically is also the only number that has a variety, indeed an infinite number, of prime factors). Imaginary numbers do not fall into this set and can be thought of as real number multiples of the square root of negative one.

2006-09-04 14:24:27 · answer #2 · answered by BuzzRocket 2 · 3 0

Both are real and finite numbers. However, 0 can be represented finitely in any number system whereas pi has no finite representation and as such, can only be approximated. Get used to this you idiot academics! And yes, I am smarter than any of you. I dare you to prove me wrong you moron Pascal!

Someone wrote that a real number plus a real number is real. Hmmm. How about the following:

Given e^(i*pi) = -1 [Euler's equation?]

This implies log (base e) -1 = i*pi
=> log (base e) -1/i = pi

Now, log -1/i + log -1/i = log -1 [A]
but log -1/i + log -1/i = 2*pi [B]

From [A] and [B], 2*pi = log -1

I can just see all you idiots scratching your stupid heads. Especially the moron American students going, "Cool uh?!, How ken dat be?"
It can be because complex analysis is based on the works of Euler-idiot. Some mathematical freaks hail this to be the most beautiful equation because it contains the number e, pi and sqrt(-1) all in one. Unfortunately it makes very little sense and finds its authority because of the characteristics of trigonometric functions.

Although I admire the work ethic of the Germans and Swiss people, they as well as every one else should leave mathematics to the race that invented it. This is what happens when stupid people are hailed as great mathematicians. These people were still swinging in trees when the Greeks founded Western civilization. As a result of the stupidity of these so-called greats, math has been set back more than 400 years with the last great mathematician being Newton.

2006-09-05 03:03:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

pi and 0 are both real numbers

pi is an irrational number. It cannot be expressed as a ratio of 2 integers
22/7 is not pi. It is only an approximation of pi
3.14 =157/50 is not pi but an approximation.

2006-09-04 18:56:28 · answer #4 · answered by PC_Load_Letter 4 · 0 0

Do you mean "Are Pi and 0 real numbers"? The answer is yes, so even your question "Is Pi and 0 a real number is yes" because two real numbers added together also is a real number

2006-09-04 14:15:01 · answer #5 · answered by JustaThought 3 · 1 0

Yes, the only numbers that are NOT real numbers are the ones whose inverse exponent (root) is even, such as (-4)^(1/2), aka the square root of -4.

(-2) x (-2) = (4), not (-4). That kind of number is said to be "imaginary" and always has an italics "i" before it. In this case, the square root of (-4) is not a real number, but we can write the answer as (i)(-2).

You can still have a root of a negative number, but the root MUST be odd, such as (-8)^(1/3) aka the cube root of -8.

(-2) x (-2) x (-2) = (-8) ... no problem there.

2006-09-04 14:31:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

pi is a type of equation and 0 is a real number dipshit who wont know that 0 is a real number without it hundred would be 1 i can see the pi thing but not 0

2006-09-04 14:09:12 · answer #7 · answered by bloodzilla666 2 · 0 2

Pi is a real number, but it goes on infinitely, and cannot be written down. 0 would be considered nothing.

2006-09-04 14:07:17 · answer #8 · answered by Me ! 2 · 0 0

pi is not a real number, it is just an estimate whereas 0 is neutral number. I don't remember if it is a real number.
Do research on the internet.

2006-09-04 14:07:25 · answer #9 · answered by SweetBrunette 5 · 1 2

yes, the only thing that would qualify as a not real or imaginary number would be the square root of a negative number.

2006-09-04 14:07:52 · answer #10 · answered by outbaksean 4 · 0 0

yes, 0 is the absesnce of, and pi is a infinate number.

2006-09-04 14:08:55 · answer #11 · answered by chris m 5 · 0 2

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