Was this part in refrence to slaves when it said 10 dollars for each person, or am i confused. can someone clarrify this for me .
2006-09-04 10:22:16 · 3 answers · asked by IRunWithScissors 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It has nothing to do with slavery, per se. Though slave-trade would be included under the broad heading.
What it says is that Congress cannot regulate immigration prior to 1808, except that Congress may charge a fee for anyone immigrating into the US of up to $10 per person. That could apply to anyone, whether coming in voluntarily or imported as part of the slave trade.
2006-09-04 10:26:08 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it basically said that congress would not restrict the slave trade until 1808, but that Congress could charge a $10 per person head tax. Hypothetically it could have applied to all persons, but was specifically written because of the slave trade.
2006-09-04 10:27:19 · answer #2 · answered by Charles D 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
REALIZE, beofre the constitution no one was a citizen, no one envioused a large country or plane travel- Its amazing that this old docment stiull works.
2006-09-04 11:21:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋