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8 answers

centuries of efficient brutal plundering have anything to do with it, you think?

grabbing millions of slave labourers?

and the efficient postcolonial economic plundering continuing today?

ie, the third world giving the first world US$200 billion a year net - ie, giving foreign aid to the first world - ie, loan repayments exceeding loans by US$200 billion a year?

plus the fact that money makes money, money is power to rake more money - whoever has the most money makes most of the rules?

eg, the world bank requiring third world countries to stick to cash crops, so the first world has cheap coffee, bananas, etc etc - not aloowing the third world countries to diversify into exotic tropical fruits that would fetch a high profit price?

read 'confessions of an economic hitman' and 'lords of poverty' by graham hancock and 'the shark and the sardines' and quotes by us general smedley butler and george seldes's the great quotations

see my other answers here at yahoo for further

2006-09-05 17:43:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Historically, the Industrial Revolution started in Britain, and soon spread to Germany and Belgium. This was the beginning of economic growth as we know it. Then it spread to the US, France, Argentina, Australia etc. Some historians argue that at that time, (say 1770 to 1913) only countries with temperate climates (no air con or refrigerated food transport in those days) could get people working in factories, and only in a NW European/Protestant culture that valued hard work, enterprise, individualism, creativity, initiative, and honouring time commitments.

Some would say that growth could not occur in colonies (1800-1960s/70s) because of imperialism but that is controversial. Many non-colonised nations such as Russia, Iran, Thailand and Japan did not grow economically at that time.

Then came the 2 world wars and the Depression ie regress.

Since 1945 the story has been the economic success of the capitalist freemarket or social market model and the relative failure of socialism/communism, resulting in its gradual acceptance and implemetation by previously sceptical governments such as Spain, Mexico, China and India.

Nowadays of course growth is fastest in countries that are technologically catching up because "all" they need to do is import already-existing technology + education etc etc whereas the most advanced economies have to invent and apply inventions in order to grow. Also, people in most of them (Europe) are choosing more leisure rather than more money - "work-life balance" is the 'in' concept.

2006-09-04 09:09:24 · answer #2 · answered by MBK 7 · 0 0

There are a lot of reasons, but probably lack of responsible government in the south is a big factor. That's not to say that the north is always governed so responsibly; just that rule of law, etc. is at least agreed upon in principle. Nigeria and Alberta have just about the same resources, just that Alberta isn't run by Nigerians. If Albertans ran Nigeria, that would be colonialism. Therefore the end of colonialism means that people have the right to run their own nations right into the ground.

2006-09-05 04:28:24 · answer #3 · answered by michinoku2001 7 · 0 0

Could you cite your examples of "wide gap in economic growth, technology, etc." ?

iPods, BMWs, and Armani suits still look, feel, and act the same down here in Texas as they do in New York.
Sure...you may make $150K while I earn $70K, though your 400 sq. foot deluxe suite still cost you as much as my 4000 sq. foot house did, and I still have money left over for those iTunes downloads and import beers.

The aforementioned scenario is just my example of why, in my opinion, there is no "wide gap in economic growth." When you adjust for the cost of living, you'll find that we 'ain't so different.'

Last I remember reading, the agriculture industry (largely based in the South and Midwest), is the single largest industry in the United States. Silicon Valley, Houston/Austin Texas, and scores of other places in the south have had their share of the technology industry.

2006-09-04 07:24:49 · answer #4 · answered by BadCamper 1 · 0 0

the economic exploitation of north by south countries under era of imperialism, that led the accumulation of wealth in south and paved the way for science and technological development in south.the climatic condition of south led the people more to be laborious.

2006-09-04 07:13:34 · answer #5 · answered by nawab allam 3 · 0 0

Schools in the South have chosen to teach to standardized test as opposed to teaching the required material to make our students competitive in the world job market.

2006-09-04 07:13:01 · answer #6 · answered by d b 3 · 0 0

many some reasons if i say them you would straightly disagree. in economic terms and my own words the main this is that the north knew how to manage and sustain growth threw generations so they became ahead.

2006-09-04 07:15:06 · answer #7 · answered by Abbas 3 · 0 0

i wont say b/c it might offend some people.

2006-09-04 14:03:29 · answer #8 · answered by ✠TotalTechMasta✠ 4 · 0 0

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