2006-09-03 12:40:51 · 6 answers · asked by Takashi101 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
Not necessarily but it can be seen as one to the naked eye.
2006-09-03 12:46:06 · answer #1 · answered by retrodragonfly 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. Communism is an economic model for property ownership, and has nothing to do with how representatives are chosen or laws are made.
If by a one party system you mean people only have one option for voting (as opposed to one party, and many independents) then that is a totalitarian regime.
2006-09-03 19:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no neccesarly it would depend on the prevailoing ideology og the majority of the people in that area . so it could be anything from a monarchy . facsit dictatotrship socialist (state different than comunism )total anarchy a corpoarte state similar to facism to something we have not yet thpught of who says only the current belifes are the only way to govern ?
2006-09-03 19:59:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it would not. Different parties stand for different things, and communist is a party. Look at the definition. Here is the link to wikipedia for the definition of communism. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Communism
2006-09-03 19:48:10 · answer #4 · answered by crct2004 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wouldn't necessarily be communist (though I see where you're going with that). But it would certainly, sooner or later, become totally corrupt.
2006-09-03 19:43:57 · answer #5 · answered by Rjmail 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it would be a dictatorship.
2006-09-07 14:08:06 · answer #6 · answered by david c 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋