lim 2^-1/x =
x=>0-
2006-09-03 11:48:15 · 6 answers · asked by Olivia 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Of course not. The answer is ∞, not -∞. Consider:
(x→0-) lim 2^(-1/x) = (x→-∞) lim 2^(-x) = (x→∞) lim 2^x = ∞.
2006-09-03 12:02:23 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
actual: (5x+7)(x-a million)
2016-11-24 20:16:00
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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oh dear, that old chestnut is still around .. NO .. the question is ambiguous .. try using philosphy to answer your own question .. and whilst you're about it ask yourself .. if a tree falls in the forest and no one hears it .. does it make a sound???
2006-09-03 11:51:40 · answer #3 · answered by The old man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no clue
2006-09-03 11:50:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i have no clue
2006-09-03 11:53:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
0.5
2006-09-03 11:59:42 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋