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Doesnt time divided by distance equal velocity dand velocity divided by time equals acceleration?that means it take longer to shrink?The more you accelerate the longer time it take to shrink in direction of motion?

2006-09-03 06:47:56 · 1 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics Physics

Isnt an inertial frame of reference really an aproximation of a gravitational frame of reference,so basically inertial frames of reference dont really exist per se?

2006-09-04 01:31:27 · update #1

is an absolute inertial frames possible to identified?

2006-09-04 01:33:40 · update #2

is an absolute inertial frames possible to identifie?

2006-09-04 01:33:52 · update #3

1 answers

Yes, in classical physics at non-relativistic speeds, average velocity is distance traveled divided by time. However, at relativistic speeds where length contraction and time dialation occur, this relationship is not true.

Also, when you are talking about time dialation and length contraction, you are talking about things in one inertial reference frame compared with a rest frame. When you are accelerating, you are not in an initerial frame, so your conclusion would not hold true.

2006-09-03 10:01:10 · answer #1 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0 0

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