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I'm not saying it isn't wrong, I'm saying if it is wrong, WHY is it wrong?

Also to be very clear, I've never had sex with any dead people (tho a few times it's felt that way).

2006-09-03 06:37:51 · 44 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

The thought of that particular activity makes me want to hurl too. But I think if you're going to say something is immoral, especially if you want to make it illegal, that you need more than. If you didn't people would be banning homosexuality and bdsm and all kinds of stuff. How is this different from other stuff we allow with the 'two consenting adults...privacy of their own bedroom' line?

2006-09-03 06:45:59 · update #1

44 answers

That's sick!! Really sick! sick sick sick!! ew...

I have no words! You can't do that..... is morally wrong.

2006-09-03 06:40:29 · answer #1 · answered by Marmot 2 · 2 1

This is a very thought-provoking question. I believe it to be on the same level as the question of whether killing someone is murder if they consent, even ask, to be killed by someone. That is, is it immoral to perform an activity that no one involved objects to?

I think that the reason necrophilia and consensual homicide are considered immoral is that it goes against the group morality. Somehow, either through a majority of people in a particular region come to the conclusion of a moral judgment or it is imposed by a king or ecclesiastical figure, a group morality is formed. It's simply a matter of a moral structure dominating all of the rest.

Oddly enough, there needs to be no rational basis behind a moral judgment, just some kind of consensus. For example, we consider killing someone wrong even if done with consent because most of us say so, whereas we have no consensus on certain issues, such as abortion, although smaller groups might.

Also, morality changes over time. It used to be accepted that interracial marriage was immoral, but that has mostly reserved itself. Different generations will define the prevailing morality.

So, to answer your question, necrophilia under any circumstances is likely to be immoral because that's how most of us feel, logical or not. Hope that helps.

2006-09-06 13:55:59 · answer #2 · answered by Ѕємι~Мαđ ŠçїєŋŧιѕТ 6 · 0 0

Come on, your not being straight with us. You're in denial. You want it don't you. Sex, with a dead body. Don't tell us you haven't seen corpses and thought "phoaw! Look at the rigour mortis on that!" Don't try and hide your lust for the cold, clamy touch of the recently deceased, the gentle hiss of the decomposition gases escaping and the sweet aroma of putrefaction.

I know you've been to that medium who offers Necrophiliac-Phone-Sex (dial 800-FESTER) but its not the same is it? You don't get the real feeling of hot (well actually quite cold) live on dead action.

Seriously as a moral wrong, if it is wrong, its not up there with murder rape. A little unusual perhaps and probably a sign that they should seriously look at putting you in an asylum but it'd be a bit difficult to see how you could argue that its seriously wrong. (Just as long as you didn't do anything kinky).

2006-09-03 09:13:14 · answer #3 · answered by anthonypaullloyd 5 · 0 0

Treat humanity (whether in your own person or someone else's) as an end and never as a means to an end only (Immanuel Kant). Exactly how does necrophilia result in treating a dead person as a means to an end only? It seems like the act would be strictly hedonistic in nature or very selfish. Moreover, necrophilia undermines the very idea of having sex relations with another rational agent, even if a rational agent consented before death.

2006-09-03 13:26:14 · answer #4 · answered by sokrates 4 · 0 0

Morality and ethics come into the picture only when you deal with a living man. Having sex with a dead man is like masturbating but far more abhorrent and not sanctioned by society. So it is more illegal than immoral. If no one sees you having sex with a dead man or animal the question of immorality does not arise.

2006-09-06 22:11:16 · answer #5 · answered by xavier w 2 · 0 0

If they pre-consent, then I would say no it's not technically immoral, but I think it's a bad idea for other reasons... but just wait and some lawyer will invent the legal fiction that it is rape because you didn't give her the opportunity to remove her consent after the act started

Getting pre-consent sounds strange, but at least it beats "finders-keepers, loosers-weepers" as a rationale.

2006-09-03 21:02:51 · answer #6 · answered by Wyld Stallyns 4 · 0 0

Interesting question! What's more interesting is: how did you think of it? However, it is a serious philosophical question about how much, or how little, power we do, or don't, have over our bodies after we die. One of the answers said it isn't illegal; I would bet you it is. But what if you tried to arrange such a thing through a lawer? Would they take the case. It is certainly morally dubious.

2006-09-03 14:27:43 · answer #7 · answered by William G 4 · 0 0

Necrophilia is having sex with the dead. Dead people have left the planet. Hulooo!! If it isnt wrong, its pretty pointless. Who would give their consent anyway?

2006-09-03 07:59:46 · answer #8 · answered by Pan 4 · 0 0

That's just wrong. Mainly because having sex should be something that two adults experience, and that they want to enjoy. A dead person can't enjoy having sex, no matter if they agreed to this before they died.

2006-09-03 06:47:46 · answer #9 · answered by Joana 1 · 3 1

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2014-09-13 09:55:49 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It it my belief that having sex with someone that is dead is not necessarily immoral. I am not sure that it is written in the bible, or the Koran, or anywhere, with the exception of our country's laws, as being immoral. But, I do believe it do be unnatural and disrespectful. I guess if someone gave permission, legal permission, to allow someone to have sex with them after they were dead, they could....but how disgusting, and inhuman.

2006-09-03 06:47:06 · answer #11 · answered by Emma 3 · 1 1

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