yes
here's why:
a^2-b^2=1. ln|a+b|=ln| [(a+b)(a-b)] / (a-b) | = ln| (a^2-b^2) / (a - b)| =
= (since a^2-b^2=1) = ln| 1 / (a-b) | = ln | (a-b)^(-1)| = (-1)*ln|a-b|
2006-09-02 11:08:28
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answer #1
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answered by cybrdng 2
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If a^2 -b^2 = 1, then ln(a^2 - b^2) = ln1
And ln((a+b)(a-b)) = 0 because ln1=0
Using logarithms rule... ln(a+b) + ln(a-b) = 0 but this is true only if a>b. If we use absolute values, then it is true to all different a and b
Then we have ln|a+b| = -ln|a-b|
2006-09-02 18:22:48
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answer #2
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answered by vahucel 6
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Yes, this is correct. Coz a2-b2 = (a+b).(a-b). So if you replace in the first equation, it becomes (a+b).(a-b) = 1. Now if you take log (ln) on both sides, it becomes ln [(a+b).(a-b)] = ln [1].
ln[1] is always 0 and ln [m.n] = ln [m] + ln [n]. Using this logic in the equation above, it becomes ln (a+b) + ln(a-b) = 0.
Now take one variable to the right side and it becomes
ln (a+b) = - ln(a-b)
Hence Proved
2006-09-02 18:15:42
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answer #3
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answered by singhjg 1
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No that is incorrect. The correct answer is: Do you own homework and stop relying on other poeple for your personal knowledge.
2006-09-02 18:08:57
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answer #4
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answered by Sordenhiemer 7
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