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In a village in each family they give birth to children till they get a boy. IF girl child they try again. What is the ratio of boys to girls.

2006-09-01 19:34:45 · 11 answers · asked by purnima d 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

11 answers

The ratio would only be 50:50 if women had an infinitely long reproductive period. In the real world they do not.

You will actually end up with about slightly more girls than boys simply because there is a limit to how many children a woman can bear in one lifetime.

Imagine a village of 100 families, and imagine that a woman can bear a maximum of 7 children in her lifetime.

50 of those families will be single child couples: they had a girl first time and stopped. These families contribute 50 girls, 0 boys to the village.
25 of them will be two child families who had a girl 2nd time. 25 girls, 25 boys
12.5 will be 3 child families. 25 boys 12.5 girls
6.25 will be 4 child. 18.75 boys, 6.25 girls
3.12 = 5 child. 12.48 boys, 3.12 girls
1.5 = 6 child. 7.5 boys, 1.5 girls
The other 1.6 couples have had 7 girls and canhave no more. 1.6 girls. 0 boys.

Thus our village has 100 girls and 88.73 boys.

2006-09-01 19:58:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The ratio is 1:1. Consider all families that have a baby. Approximately one half of these babies are boys, half of them are girls. Some of these families "advance to the next round" to have more babies. Now consider the second-born babies. Again, the ratio of boys vs girls is 1:1... and so on. So ultimately the ratio is 1:1.

Let's think about this with a smaller size (16 families) having exactly 4 children. This distribution would look like this:
BBBB
BBBG
BBGB
BBGG
BGBB
BGBG
BGGB
BGGG
GBBB
GBBG
GBGB
GBGG
GGBB
GGBG
GGGB
GGGG
32 boys : 32 girls (ratio 1:1)

But now have them stop if when they hit a boy:
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
GB
GB
GB
GB
GGB
GGB
GGGB
GGGG
15 boys : 15 girls (1:1 ratio)

Expanding this out to 31 families:
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
GB
GB
GB
GB
GB
GB
GB
GB
GGB
GGB
GGB
GGB
GGGB
GGGB
GGGGB
GGGGG
31 boys : 31 girls (1:1 ratio)

Fortunately this matches with our intuition. There is nothing in this scheme that is changing the independent 50%/50% chance of having a boy vs. a girl, so we would expect it to remain a 1:1 ratio... and it does.

2006-09-01 19:51:46 · answer #2 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 0 0

well first of all there will probably be a greater number of girls. because it is impossible, with those rules, for a family to have more than 1 boy but they could have multiple girls. and i dont think there is enough info.

lets look at a case where there are three families
A. B, end
B. G, G, B, end
C. G, G, B end

and another

A. G,B end
B. G, G, G, B
C. G, G, B

you would have to have another restraint or use calculus to solve for a series.
you could solve the problem using a representative sample: flipping a coin and see what you get. make Heads - boys Tails -girls and use the same rules

IDK

2006-09-01 19:46:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1:2

2006-09-01 19:37:21 · answer #4 · answered by happy.moron 1 · 0 0

1:1

The number of 'trials' doesn't matter. It seems like there would be more girls, but right of the bat, half the families have 1 boys and no girls. On the second round of procreation, half have girls and half have boys, on the third round same thing, and so on

In the end, the number of girls (past the first one) in multiple girl families equals the number of only boys.

2006-09-02 03:22:57 · answer #5 · answered by perk 2 · 0 0

Statistical consequences tutor a million:a million between boys and ladies folk. in reality the newborn female falls back and the ratio of boys to ladies contains one thousand:980.( regular). Many motives for this. considerable reason for difficulty in coming up worldwide places is the female abortions and termination of being pregnant very early etc.

2016-11-23 18:41:13 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

IN THE LONG TERM THE RATIO WILL CONVERGE ON 1:1

2006-09-01 20:06:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

its not 50-50... its about timing, but were just not 100% at keeping track of the timing

2006-09-01 19:41:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As there is no upper limit for getting children has been fixed, there are many probabilities.
VR

2006-09-01 21:26:28 · answer #9 · answered by sarayu 7 · 0 0

50-50% chance idk how to put that in ratio form

for starters, not enough info is given to accually work it out

2nd, its mathmaticly proven in heredity, you have a 50% chance of gettin a boy or a girl

2006-09-01 19:38:32 · answer #10 · answered by Terryn M 3 · 0 2

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