2006-09-01 17:21:39 · 9 answers · asked by Noel 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
What kind of comment are you looking for? Stated another way. Acquired knowledge (wisdom) is an asset (profitable) to comprehending (understanding).
So the more a person learns, thus the more knowledge they have, is an asset to understanding.
I would agree, the more one learns, the more the universe seems to open up. Have you noticed that. If one learns a little bit, it seems so much more in life makes sense.
So I would agree with your statement.
2006-09-01 17:34:33 · answer #1 · answered by chris 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is the other way around.
Understanding is profitable to wisdom.
Wisdom is gained through a series of life experiences. If one does not fully understand the experience - wisdom will not be gleaned.
Wisdom is the reward for taking the time and care to understand what we go through in life, and it becomes a navigation tool by which we determine our future paths and decisions.
2006-09-03 22:50:34 · answer #2 · answered by quay_grl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wisdom is the source of all understanding. Look at King Solomon, for example. He was the wisest person who ever lived, and the people came to him with all their problems. He understood what needed to be done. You can't be any richer if you have wisdom, for then you have the world at your fingertips.
2006-09-01 17:36:02 · answer #3 · answered by Mrs.Fine 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would comment but i do not have the wisdom to understand..!
2006-09-01 21:25:14 · answer #4 · answered by ROSE.UK 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Understanding is the workshop (or fertile land for wisdom)
Wisdom is the product.
Better understanding - more output (Better land - more yield)
2006-09-03 17:25:18 · answer #5 · answered by latterviews 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To see the bigger picture is the wisdom, to learn in retrospect and still have the courage to dance on forwards.
2006-09-03 11:38:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Surely they walk hand in hand. with out understanding there is no wisdom, without widom there is no understanding.
2006-09-03 00:31:38 · answer #7 · answered by Phil J 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why are a wise man and a wise guy totally different?
2006-09-01 18:18:33 · answer #8 · answered by The Stig 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only for someone who is smart enough to know what you are saying
2006-09-03 09:35:53 · answer #9 · answered by jane m 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋