Also how has it been interpreted?
2006-09-01 11:08:52 · 6 answers · asked by NHStudent 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
All history was considered when the US Constitution was drafted especially the 1st. It protects the people from the government. It doesn't protect against speech between citizens such as slander. Too drunk and lost interest so I won't continue.
2006-09-01 11:22:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are five clauses in the 1st Amendment, proposed in 1789 and ratified in 1791.
There are hundreds of Supreme Court cases, and thousands of other cases, interpreting one or more of those provisions.
So, you're asking a fairly broad question that's usually covered by multi-hundred page law school textbooks just to provide a summary.
{EDIT to sway_ii} The sad thing about your posts is that people might actually believe you, not realizing how massively inaccurate you are about so many of the legal issues you comment on.
Disagreeing with court rulings is one thing. Badly misquoting them, either because you don't understand them or because you've never bothered to read them, is just dangerous.
2006-09-01 18:20:26 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This might help:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1st_amendment
This one might a little bit better:
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/amendment01/
Another good way to know the history of the frist amendment is research cases of the first amendment that were brought to the supreme court. Here is the Supreme Court's website:
http://www.supremecourtus.gov/
They have a list of different supreme court cases, so you might have a little harder time looking there.
Theres another website thats a little easier on words and is in more layman's terms though. Heres that one:
http://www.oyez.org/oyez/frontpage
2006-09-01 18:19:47 · answer #3 · answered by Jason 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I agree with Sway!
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances
It says no one religion and NOT no religion at all. Thomas Jefferson's letter was taken out of context with separation of church and state.
Freedom of Speech for anyone as long as you don't say Jesus in a positive sense. Any crude or disrespectful usage is acceptable.
The press...I don't even wanna start.
*Benjamin Franklin was not a religious man but he beleived a society needed religion for it's morals. Just look at us now. Nuff said
2006-09-01 18:13:54 · answer #4 · answered by Jasmine 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It has been interpreted as "seperation of church and state" which is complete BS, and it has been interpreted as you can have freedom of speech, but only if it does not offend the following people
minorities, gays and school teachers.
you can have freedom of religion, but only if you are not Christian.
2006-09-01 18:11:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
First read it, then see how it has been misconstrued from its original intent. The first guy is right. Give him #1.
2006-09-01 18:16:40 · answer #6 · answered by TiM 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋