Suppose a man and woman are equally intoxicated and have sex. Assume neither of them would have had sex if they were sober, but both of them were conscious during the act. Feminists typically say that this means the man raped the woman, but didn't the man and women both do exactly the same thing? If the woman can't consent because she's drunk, the man can't either. So it seems to me. either no one was raped, or the man and the woman both raped each other. Personally I'd go with the former. What do the rest of you think?
2006-09-01 10:21:45 · 23 answers · asked by john 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
They were both drunk, they both consented, even though not soberly, so no one was raped. They both just made bad choices.
2006-09-01 10:26:33 · answer #1 · answered by PaganPoetess 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I have wondered this as well. You cannot give concent if you are drunk. In school, since i was in a frat, we had to do all sorts of drinking and sex counseling stuff. A police officer was answering questions and the drunk sex topic came up. We asked him about both parties being drunk. He didnt know an official answer, but he said that the law usually sides with the woman. If she complains of rape, then it most likely will be interpreted as the woman being raped.
2006-09-01 10:33:34 · answer #2 · answered by lxa478 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
some circumstances i imagine those so referred to as feminst should be truly biased which in turn skill there no longer extremely feminist in any respect. I see 2 incidents and the feminist have an same reaction Incident One: female is inebriated guy asks to have sex female concurs. Feminist take the females area and contact it rape Incident 2: guy is inebriated female asks to have sex guy concurs. Feminist take women area again and say it isn't rape It extremely disgust me how are society has lengthy gone lady have fought for equivalent rights longer than each person alive now there attempting to positioned each and every of the adult males in penal complex and do not get me incorrect when I say lady i do not mean each and every lady in the international yet i'd be honest from what i have considered there are many less good lady then there are undesirable and maximum of em aint even feminist.
2016-12-06 03:02:12 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Saying that it is rape is just an excuse for someone making a bad decision. If you know that you get out of control(not acting as you normally would) when you are drunk, then you should take friends w/you to keep an eye on you....
2006-09-01 10:27:07 · answer #4 · answered by NYSteve 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If either one of them said to stop, or no, then the other person raped them. No matter how drunk a guy is if a girl says no, he has to stop.
If no one said to stop, since they were both intoxicated, it was a one night stand that they will likely regret, but it wasn't rape.
2006-09-01 10:24:42 · answer #5 · answered by legallyblond2day 5 · 5⤊ 0⤋
no1 i will not alone with a non mehraam
no2 i would even touch alcohol let alone drink it.
but the scenario your decribing needs proper judgement and type as each case is diff.
by the way i am muslim.
so i would wear the hijab so not to show my beauty to another man.islam is the best thing!! wohhhooo i love this secuirty my religion gives its a shame the men take away the women s rights in islam not all by some mean men, dont belive me? check out http://www.islamalways.com and read about a womens rights etc... men children etc...
2006-09-01 10:27:56 · answer #6 · answered by sabrina 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have argued this so many times (after many drunk nights of passion ... lol).
I was once accused of raping a drunk broad. but I was much more drunk than she was, so this question has stuck in my head ever since then, because there is no way i would have smashed that ho if I was sober (in fact, I was ashamed, till this day she is still the ugliest broad I ever slept with).And she had the audacity to accused me of rape. I was outraged "*****! if anything, you raped me!" so yeah .... Im feeling you.
2006-09-01 10:27:55 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Great question!!!!
Here is the answer....
obviously, they both have trouble handling alcohol...
obviously, they both should know better...
if they cannot control their actions and their judgment is impaired by alcohol, then they shouldn't drink....and should not put themselves in a position where something like this could happen.
nobody raped anyone, they are both just really stupid, and we should hope they learn from this lack of judgment.
but the point is.... let us hope they don't reproduce.
2006-09-01 10:36:05 · answer #8 · answered by Tanya N (thesingingbeaner) 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
rape is defined as non-consensual sex, plain and simple. If she )or he, for that matter, men can be raped by a woman or another man, as well as women raping another woman) If neither party protested, then it was consesual sex.
2006-09-01 10:26:42 · answer #9 · answered by munesliver 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the man and the woman are equally drunk and she is incapable of consenting, then he is probably incapable of performing. If he is sober enough to perform, and they are equally sober, then she is capable of resisting (saying no) or submitting (saying yes)
2006-09-01 10:31:57 · answer #10 · answered by Clarkie 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋