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the 1<--- over here can be the exact same as the 1<---- over here. If this is true for 1=1 then how does it effect the rest of math equations with ='s in them? I think there is alot we are not compensating for in math and that everything we have been taught could be wrong. Not that I have a clue what the truth would be tho.

2006-09-01 09:22:49 · 13 answers · asked by magpiesmn 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

Modern mathemathics lies upon 15 axioms of hte field of real numbers. These are facts that cannnot exactly be proven, but are self-evident. The second one is x=x. Or in your case 1=1. Infact it all doesn't actually exist. Ever seen a number? I don't mean abstract symbols that represent them. Think about that one.

2006-09-01 09:30:31 · answer #1 · answered by Bax 2 · 0 0

Do not drive or operate machinery while thinking about this stuff.

You might have seen this in Alg. 1 or Geometry, but I don't blame you for forgetting it - I did, and I'm a total math geek!

We define an "Equivalence Relation", with the symbol ' = ', as true in the following cases.

1. A = A is always true. An object is "equal to" itself. (Reflexive Property)

2. If A=B, then B=A. This is called the "Symmetric Property"

3. If A=B and B=C, then A=C. This is the "Transitive Property"

Using the real numbers, and this relationship, this holds true for every 1 = 1 you can find.

But trust me when I tell you it ain't always this easy. After you take Calculus in college, you could take a REAL math class, where they examine set theory in mind-numbing detail, and you can have some set of numbers where one '1' is different than another '1'.

2006-09-01 18:47:03 · answer #2 · answered by Polymath 5 · 0 0

If I understand you correctly, the answer is that (from a linguistic philosophy standpoint) numbers are the only written items that are identical to the items that they represent. For example, the word "dog" is not a dog and the word "love" is not love, but "1" is linguisticly equivalent to the concept of the number one. For this reason, "1=1" is correct (since both "1"s are equivalent to the number one) in a way that "dog=dog" is not (since that only shows that the word dog is equivalent to the word dog and has nothing to do with real dogs).

2006-09-01 16:30:38 · answer #3 · answered by DAC 2 · 1 0

actually the equal sign in itself indicates equality. if i understand you correctly, you are wondering if this is really true in all cases of mathematical equations. right? well, if this is the case, then yes. it works. why?

let's take 2x-4=8

since x represents any variable, we can solve for it. and get x=6.

the = means it's going to be equal. simple as that.

1=1 affects other math problems because it indicates that whatever is on one side of the = sign is equal to whatever is on the other side. therefore you could mathematically say:

x=x

or

"whatever" = "whatever"

however, this is not always true. for instance 9=1, which is, of course incorrect.

i hope this helps, although i doubt it. :)

2006-09-01 16:32:34 · answer #4 · answered by hmbn 4 · 1 0

This is really a philosophical question.

People like Aristotle (and Ayn Rand, one of his worshippers) say that a thing is always itself. Absolute and common-sense.

Others have muddied the water to trap people like yourself and play on your doubts. Humans will never have an absolute understanding of the Universe, but this doesn't mean we should cop out on the easy stuff.

2006-09-01 16:36:36 · answer #5 · answered by Ren Hoek 5 · 0 0

DING DING DING!!! WE HAVE A SINNER! (whoops, "WINNER" ) LOL

1 (what) + 1 (what)
Your apples may look the same, but they're NOT the same.
Math is just a big set of arbitrary rules and regulations; which is why these new physics can make anything work. (Want 987234 dimensions? Sure, just carry the 5; & voila!)

2006-09-02 03:33:34 · answer #6 · answered by sincere12_26 4 · 0 1

last time i checked 1=1. there's no way you can have one equal another number besides itself. 1 does not equal 2 or -1 or 146 etc.

2006-09-01 16:29:57 · answer #7 · answered by Caitlin 2 · 0 0

the one on one side has the same value as the one on the other side of the equal to sign. Hence, they are equal

2006-09-01 16:28:50 · answer #8 · answered by freetibetfighter 3 · 0 0

The two 1s point to exactly the same concept in math. They aren't two different 1s.

2006-09-01 16:29:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

1 = 1

I am sure 1 does indeed equal 1.....

2006-09-01 16:25:16 · answer #10 · answered by Moses_Santos_ii 2 · 0 0

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