2006-09-01 06:11:11 · 0 answers · asked by Cassandra S 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Historically, under Common Law, people could not ask a court to decide an issue until there was an actual dispute involving that issue arising from an action that someone had already taken, and which had already caused damage to the Plaintiff (the one seeking court relief). Legal reformers contended that it was wasteful & harmful to require someone to actually suffer loss or damage before they could bring such actions before a court. So legislatures enacted declaratory judgment statutes allowing people to bring such questions before the courts before the issue has "ripened" into an actual claim for damages or injunctive relief. In order to prevent the courts from becoming general purpose answer bureaus, such statutes sharply limit the kinds of declaratory judgments that may be requested. Typically such actions are allowed only where there is a dispute as to the meaning of language in an existing contract or existing statute, ordinance or government regulation.
2006-09-01 06:35:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Declaratory Decree
2016-11-14 01:18:22 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
State (not federal) courts can be asked to make a declaration as to some legal issue, such as whether a law is constitutional or what the rights of an individual are, before there is an actual dispute.
{EDIT} MLaw provided a great history and context. Kudos.
2006-09-01 06:40:32 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the best answers, search on this site https://shorturl.im/aviHw
they did not care for the most part but when they were like that the rebels punished them e.g tar and feather and other worse punishments. They were forced to either support the revolution or move to Canada - if they stayed they would be punished if they lived in rebel controlled territory. The same was done to rebel supporters by British. It was the arrogance of issuing taxation on the americans - without representation without being consulted that brought about the revolution. Britain had to pay for the expensive French Indian War that had occurred before the revolution started but did not consult the colonists on this but issued a decree - the colonists resented this but it was the rebels that fanned the flames ' give me liberty or give me death ' etc
2016-04-09 05:01:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋