English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Is language itself even neutral?

From my years as a communications major, I think not.
A language is part of culture, and it shaped by culture. This, in part, is why we have words like 'housewife' but not 'househusband'.

I think the dictionary is useful for providing a general consensis on what particuar words mean and how they are spelled, but when it comes to cultural or philosophical discussion, dictionary definitions sometimes just don't cut it.

Any thoughts?

2006-09-01 03:28:59 · 5 answers · asked by mikayla_starstuff 5 in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

I didn't say it needs to be neutral. I asked IS it neutral?

2006-09-01 03:37:11 · update #1

5 answers

I don't think language is supposed to be nuetral. Language is used to describe both nuetral and non-nuetral objects, thoughts, actions, ect. I agree it is definitely shaped by culture -- and the dictionary is a great source to find out how American's (for example) percieve the word "housewife".

2006-09-01 03:39:22 · answer #1 · answered by thatgirl 6 · 1 0

I agree with you. And it's impossible for language to be neutral, because as you said, language is shaped by culture and therefore, shaped by that culture's attitudes and biases. Think about Romance languages, too, which have gendered nouns, articles,etc.--in French, the word for "car" is feminine, the word for "professor" is masculine. So yeah, definitely--all the languages I've heard of are definitely biased. Dictionaries are useful for spelling and textbook definitions, but once we need to talk about the actual nature and implication of these words, we have to move beyond the dictionary's definitions. Great question, by the way!

2006-09-01 10:36:10 · answer #2 · answered by Casey 4 · 1 0

the lexicons are neutral what they report is biased by the people who the lexicographers have no influence over because they are neutral....popular usage or society shape the language now maybe you mean the etymology of the older tongues and when did political cultural influence become the duty of the dictionary if your passionate about this start your own dict.of cultural relevance I think ...no box up my sleeve...

2006-09-01 10:45:22 · answer #3 · answered by dogpatch USA 7 · 0 0

Language does not need to be neutral unless you live on the plant Politically Correctoid.

2006-09-01 10:33:08 · answer #4 · answered by J D 5 · 0 2

I think its pretty neutral. Besides we do have the word homemaker. so that could refer to husbands as well.

2006-09-01 10:34:50 · answer #5 · answered by smalltownangel 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers