In translation, it reads
"28. No constable or any other baliff shall take any man's corn or other chattels unless he pays cash for them at once or can delay payment With the agreement of the seller."
So how did that all go wrong? How is it that they are so careless of seized property? Wasn't the whole tradition about protecting your personal property from the simple greed of the King or his servants ?
2006-08-31
13:59:42
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2 answers
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asked by
WomanWhoReads
5
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Very often, unjustly seized property isn't secured, or returned, hence my question!
Most common law is based on the MC. It was reinforced throughout history, because people weren't happy with the imbalance of power.
Besides, everything back then was done at swordpoint and is of questionable validity. I'm questioning how it became OK to do what the barons originally rebelled against. Having signed it, he butchered people. They didn't tolerate that for very long.
2006-08-31
15:04:32 ·
update #1
I should probably add that I realise how old this founding document is. How did it become fine for serfs to prove their credit-rating in advance, and pay interest while they await compensation, and yet they agreed to that? Don't people get tired of this every 500 years or so?
2006-08-31
15:16:05 ·
update #2
I've looked through the amendments. I cannot identify which one effectively reversed that principle! How did it get eroded? Where are the cops with a blank cheque to say 'whatever it takes, we could be wrong about you'?
2006-08-31
15:18:58 ·
update #3