2006-08-31 11:06:09 · 8 answers · asked by confused 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1 million
2006-08-31 11:08:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm sure others will give you a straightforward answer, but here's how to anwer that question through dimensional analysis:
mm/km = (1000 millimeters/meter) x (1000 meters/kilometer) = 1,000,000.
It would be easier to explain this in person, but notice how the meter units cancel each other out, with one in the denominator and one in the numerator, leaving only the units you're interested in. If you use this general method, you can solve all sorts of conversion problems that at first "look" hard.
2006-08-31 11:15:32 · answer #2 · answered by IrritableMom 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 million
2006-08-31 11:10:23 · answer #3 · answered by michellaneous413 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1000 * 1000 = 1000000.
2006-09-04 06:35:16 · answer #4 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a milli-meter is one thousandth of a meter
a kilo-meter is one thousand meters.
so a kilo-meter is one thousand times one thousand milli-meters
or one million millimeters
a
2006-08-31 11:38:23 · answer #5 · answered by AntoineBachmann 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you got the reply. one million.
2006-08-31 11:12:38 · answer #6 · answered by prince47 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1000000
2006-08-31 11:12:39 · answer #7 · answered by datohandtung 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1.0x10^6
2006-08-31 11:11:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋