2006-08-31 09:17:25 · 12 answers · asked by Leo 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
It is historical title as explained above - but it is meant to be the position for the heir apparrent - but this is not by right but at the behest of the Soverign (the queen).
it also comes from when a king would have his lords to watch over the land and report back to him. The lords would effectively rule the lands and keep peace in accordance to the wishes of the monarch. These had differnt titles depending on importance to the throne; Prince - normally a son who would be sent out to, effectively practice ruling, a sort of training session; then there were viscounts, dukes, barons, lords etc. So, as the monarch ruled England his son would rule wales on his behalf. Scotland at that time had a monarchy of their own, hence no prince of scotland.
2006-08-31 09:31:29 · answer #1 · answered by marc k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The country of Wales is right next to England. In the old days the crown prince was given Wales so that the king or queen could keep an eye on him.
2006-08-31 09:24:31 · answer #2 · answered by Jabberwock 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tells you here
The Prince of Wales is a title created for the male heir to the throne. There is no automatic succession to this title, but it is normally passed on when the existing Prince of Wales accedes to the throne. The title becomes merged in the Crown and is renewed only by the Sovereign's pleasure. The Queen created Prince Charles The Prince of Wales on 26th July, 1958. The Prince can trace his descent through the Tudors to the original native Princes of Wales, though the title's use for the Heir to the English Throne began with Edward II, who had been created Prince of Wales by his father Edward I in 1301.
2006-08-31 09:24:35 · answer #3 · answered by little weed 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The title was given to him by the Queen. He was created The Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester in 1958, though his actual investiture did not take place until 1 July 1969. This was a major ceremony, held at Caernarfon Castle in north Wales, a place traditionally associated with the creation of the title in the 13th century. Previous investitures had taken place at various locations, including the Palace of Westminster, the seat of Parliament. The Welsh borough of Swansea was granted city status to mark the occasion.
The investiture also aroused considerable hostility among some Welsh nationalists, and there were threats of violence and a short bombing campaign, although these acts were generally more related to the greater nationalist campaign for Welsh independence and the rights of the Welsh language. The nationalist campaign against the investiture culminated with an attempted bombing by two members of the Mudiad Amddiffyn Cymru on the eve of the investiture that resulted in the two bomber's deaths.
2006-08-31 09:46:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because when the last Prince of Wales, Llywelyn ap Gruffudd or"Llywelyn the Last", was defeated by Edward I (the Norman King of England) in the 13th Century, Edward gave the Welsh people his son as their Prince. The title "Prince of Wales" has been handed down to the first son of the monarch since then.
BTW I'm Welsh and really have no problem with any of this. I'm not going to start raging about medieval princes and battles that happened nearly 1000 years ago! I'm a Royalist anyway and quite happy with the Royal Family. All this ultra-defensive Welsh chip on the shoulder stuff just gets on my nerves, especially when some spotty idiot from Merthyr think it is their "Patriotic Duty" to pick fights with any Englishman who crosses their path. Its just embarassing. You can be proud to be Welsh without being obnoxious about it.
EDIT: Lis -
Please read my post. I am Welsh and took the trouble to do a degree in Welsh History so I know what I'm on about. I have no idea what you are referring to, it has nothing to do with Prince Charles. and actually I don't mind the man at all, so you can't say "we" don't want him because I am one of the Welsh people.
How much knowledge of our country's history do you have?
2006-08-31 09:23:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Check out wikipedia.
The tradition of investing the heir of the monarch of Britain with the title of "Prince of Wales" began in 1301, when King Edward I of England, having completed the conquest of Wales, gave the title to his heir, Prince Edward (later King Edward II of England). According to a famous legend, the king had promised the rebellious Welsh natives that he would name "a prince born in Wales, who did not speak a word of English" and then produced his infant son to their surprise (and presumable chagrin); but the story may well be apocryphal, as it can only be traced to the 16th century.
Again, check out wikipedia. It will give a fuller explanation from past to present, etc.
2006-08-31 09:25:05 · answer #6 · answered by take_me_to_the_beach 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because England, technically, has the reigning Monarch as its head. The monarchy is represented in other parts of Britain by, for example, The Prince of Wales, The Duke of Edinburgh. I am not a constitutional expert, so I cannot elaborate further. Although Wales and Scotland enjoy devolved powers, as far as the outside world is concerned they are not seperate countries. they are part of Britain.
2006-09-01 09:55:12 · answer #7 · answered by Veritas 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because England didn't bloody want him - so they thought they would force him onto Wales. The only problem is we don't want him either and we want his new wife the "horses head" even less.
2006-08-31 09:40:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it's a ploy of the English to make the other parts of their kingdom believe they are "British". They go to Balmoral and wear kilts for a week or two in summer, to keep the Scottish happy, too.
2006-08-31 10:04:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he is a sheep shagger! Come on Camilla!!
2006-09-03 01:18:32 · answer #10 · answered by General Guru Master 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋