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If the bases of two pyramids have equal areas and the height of the two pyramids is equal also, why does it follow that the corresponding sections parallel to their bases have equal areas?

2006-08-31 05:03:21 · 2 answers · asked by Jesse 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Similarity. Look at a side-view of the two pyramids. The same fraction of the way up, the edge lengths of the slices are reduced in the same proportion.

2006-08-31 05:11:17 · answer #1 · answered by Benjamin N 4 · 0 0

because there is no way for them not to be... If the bases are identical, and the height is equal, the sides have to be too.

2006-08-31 12:09:32 · answer #2 · answered by ceprn 6 · 0 0

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