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Its,
3 power x + 4 power x = 5 power x
And please don't use that hit and trial method to give value of x = 2.

2006-08-31 01:02:37 · 10 answers · asked by gr8_thinker 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

10 answers

You problably mean: how to *solve* 3^x + 4^x = 5^x?

There is no analytical way of doing it, but you can find the solution by iteration. Rewrite the equation as x = ln (3^x + 4^x)/ln 5.
Take a starting value for x, put in the rhs, and obtain a new x=2.80...
Plug in again. Continue iteration like that and the x will slowly converge to x=2.

2006-08-31 01:24:19 · answer #1 · answered by cordefr 7 · 1 1

I agree with the other posters: I believe you mean you want to find all x such that 3^x + 4^x = 5^x.

If you divide both sides by 5^x then you want to solve the equivalent equation (3/5)^x + (4/5)^x = 1. I'm going to prove that the function f(x) = (3/5)^x + (4/5)^x - 1 vanishes at only one point, namely x = 2. This is obvious if you plot f(x) vs. x, but I'll prove this rigorously.

I claim that f(x) is a strictly decreasing function. (Again, this is obvious if you stare at the plot of f(x).) This is because it's derivative is f'(x) = ln(3/5)*(3/5)^x + ln(4/5)*(4/5)^x, the logarithm ln(3/5) < 0, yet the exponential (3/5)^x > 0. Hence f'(x) < 0 for all x.

This strictly decreasing function only has at most one value x such that f(x) = 0. (More generally, there is at most one x such that f(x) = A for any given A.) Now f(2) = 0 so x = 2 is the only such value such that f(x) = 0.

2006-08-31 01:54:33 · answer #2 · answered by edraygoins 2 · 0 0

Omg, all the answers are so complicated!!!
Actually I'm allittle bit dumb at the moment, so I can't give you 'pure' algebraical solution, but I have another one.
OK then:
3^x + 4^x = 5^x
(3/5)^x + (4/5)^x = 1
(3/5)^x = 1 - (4/5)^x
We have to functions now, which can have only one point of intersection. That can be proven by doing some mathematical analysis craft, I won't post it here :P
You don't like a "hit and trial method", but 3, 4, 5 are well-known Pythagorean numbers that satisfy a right-angled triangle equality
a^2+b^2=c^2. So you don't just try a random number here. You know that x=2 is the solution, your mission is to prove it's uniqueness--that has been done above.
I hope you accept my answer.

2006-08-31 01:47:17 · answer #3 · answered by leo f 1 · 0 0

x=0

2006-08-31 01:09:06 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

If x=4, 3^4 + 4^4 does not equal 5^4, so your equation does not hold for all x.

2006-08-31 01:14:28 · answer #5 · answered by fcas80 7 · 1 0

That is actually very similar to Fermat's Last Theorem, in which he states there are no values greater than 2 for which the equation A^x+B^x= C^x holds true.

So in order to prove what you are asking, you need to ask Andrew Wiles

2006-08-31 01:27:58 · answer #6 · answered by mthtchr05 5 · 0 0

It is only true for x=2. Pythagorean theorem.

2006-08-31 01:43:25 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

use natural log (ln) function

2006-08-31 01:56:19 · answer #8 · answered by alandicho 5 · 0 0

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat%27s_Last_Theorem#The_proof_of_Fermat.27s_Last_Theorem


Doug

2006-08-31 01:19:02 · answer #9 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

it is dream

2006-08-31 01:20:53 · answer #10 · answered by arman982 2 · 0 2

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