No because presumably she only has a sexual attraction to her husband, not to the other wives. Though if she did happen to be sexually attracted to women and men, she would be bisexual.
2006-08-30 21:54:06
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answer #1
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answered by Fluorescent 4
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That depends - do the wives engage in sexual acts with each other? In that case, yes. However, normally that does not happen as I understand it. So nromally, no.
2006-08-31 04:57:43
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Not unless she had sex with the other wives
2006-08-31 05:00:19
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answer #3
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answered by ArgumentativeButNotInsulting 4
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You must be a very lonely person. Wishing for that.
2006-08-31 05:53:26
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answer #4
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answered by NIck N 5
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We'll consider that at the regularly scheduled meeting of "Polygamous Anonymous". Thanks for your concern.
2006-08-31 05:42:38
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answer #5
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answered by EMAILSKIP 6
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