2006-08-30 21:51:14 · 5 answers · asked by Chuck Dhue 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
No because presumably she only has a sexual attraction to her husband, not to the other wives. Though if she did happen to be sexually attracted to women and men, she would be bisexual.
2006-08-30 21:54:06 · answer #1 · answered by Fluorescent 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That depends - do the wives engage in sexual acts with each other? In that case, yes. However, normally that does not happen as I understand it. So nromally, no.
2006-08-31 04:57:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Not unless she had sex with the other wives
2006-08-31 05:00:19 · answer #3 · answered by ArgumentativeButNotInsulting 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You must be a very lonely person. Wishing for that.
2006-08-31 05:53:26 · answer #4 · answered by NIck N 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We'll consider that at the regularly scheduled meeting of "Polygamous Anonymous". Thanks for your concern.
2006-08-31 05:42:38 · answer #5 · answered by EMAILSKIP 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋