2006-08-30 18:19:41 · 3 answers · asked by rentao_k 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
After when or what? Before when or what?
In general, the moral values have deteriorated dramatically after WWII. Every man for himself is the code of the day. When I was young, late 30's, early 40's a man's word was truly his bond. Business deals were done over the phone. Contracts were not needed in many cases. Now you need an army of lawyers. I saw an elderly blind lady with her maid in a super market recently trying to get something down from a high shelf. I said to the maid, "Let me help you ladies" and retrieved the cat tray down for them. The blind lady said "Without eyes I know he's over 50" I thought that was a sad commentary on today's society.
Vaya con DIOS
2006-08-30 18:32:30 · answer #1 · answered by chrisbrown_222 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No difference in morals. They are just expressed in different ways.
2006-08-31 01:30:25 · answer #2 · answered by iansand 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a hand shake used to be a mans honesty,but now there is very little honesty anywhere.
2006-09-02 19:54:05 · answer #3 · answered by bluezman9 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋