Yes..third is valid because first divorced and 2nd was not valid since still married so 3 rd is valid because divorced and 2nd void.
2006-08-30 14:50:18
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answer #1
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answered by jessdjnick 4
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As I read it, he never divorced No. 2 , so Marriage to No. 3 is bigamous.
However, marriage to No. 2 was not legal, either, until he divorced No. 1. But still, marriage No. 2 was invalidated when No. 1 turned up and was divorced.. So he is a 2 time bigamy felon.
Apparently, he doesn't know what lawyers are for.
2006-08-30 21:47:38
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answer #2
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answered by seeitmiway32 5
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Umm... second marriage never would have been "legal". If they were divorced from the first wife then the third marriage would be the second legal marriage...... and people go to jail for being married to two people at the same time. Its called bigomy.
2006-08-30 21:48:35
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answer #3
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answered by Ashley P 6
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Wow, this guy needs a score card to keep track of the wives and ex-wives. I think you are right. I think the second wife was not actually his wife because he didn't divorce his first wife until later. He really needs to seek legal help to get this figured out.
2006-08-30 21:47:56
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answer #4
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answered by physandchemteach 7
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The 2nd marriage was illegal. The 1st is obviously legal. If he's divorced from the 2nd, then 3rd is legal unless they're not divorced then 3rd will be illegal also like the 2nd. You follow?
2006-08-30 22:00:19
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answer #5
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answered by cheetah7 6
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There are some states that recognize conman law. After some many years. He should check with a lawyer. He still maybe married to wife #2.
2006-08-30 21:49:14
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answer #6
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answered by whataboutme 5
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Who gives a S****t
2006-08-30 21:45:44
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answer #7
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answered by sangoma43 2
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wow
2006-08-30 21:46:15
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answer #8
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answered by tmweber 4
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Huh!!!!!
2006-08-30 21:52:10
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answer #9
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answered by Apple 6
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