2006-08-30 06:26:03 · 5 answers · asked by juan m 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Other - Business & Finance
It is without the other party's knowledge - that's a federal law.
2006-08-30 06:30:17 · answer #1 · answered by kcincon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texas is a "one-party" state; in other words, only one party needs to know about the taping. The exception to this is if the call crosses state lines; then the federal law would apply (i.e., both parties must consent).
However, it can't be used in any legal matter.
2006-08-30 06:33:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
As long as one party knows, it's okay to do so. Think of the GWBush tapes that came out recently about his cocaine use etc...
2006-08-30 06:35:24 · answer #3 · answered by GJ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not only in Texas, but countrywide, unless you inform the caller you are.
2006-08-30 06:31:11 · answer #4 · answered by jurydoc 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who knows if you feel they are going to hurt peopl and they are like proof then i guess i say its ok
2006-08-30 06:32:18 · answer #5 · answered by Me 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋