You are correct -- the "c" WAS added in. The Middle English word, borrowed from the French, did not have it in either spelling or pronunciation.
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/indict
http://www.webster.com/dictionary/indict
But in the 17th century some pedagogues pushed to change the spelling of words to fit their etymology (or supposed etymology since they were sometimes mistaken!). In this case, they went back to the Latin root of the word (which had been altered in French) and 'added the c back in'.
Other examples of their work: the p in "receipt"; the b in "debt" and the s in "island" (the last two based on mistaken eytmologies!)
http://members.tripod.com/~Duermueller/spellingreform.html
2006-08-30 05:28:57
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answer #1
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answered by bruhaha 7
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It would actually be more accurate to ask "whose bright idea was it to not pronounce the c" since the word has the same root (dicere, latin, to say or to speak) as edict, predict, dictate, contradict (and the various verb tenses and noun forms of each) in which the c is pronounced.
2006-08-30 04:23:59
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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If you pronounce it correctly you should hear the "c" else it would be pronounced indit, and that probably makes it less hard as a word, and to indict is harsh...
2006-08-30 04:09:17
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answer #3
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answered by Auntie Alex 3
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The same person who put an "S" in lisp..
2006-08-30 04:12:12
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answer #4
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answered by psstoffagain 5
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the same idiot who made up the rest of the dictionary ........ =0)
2006-08-30 04:32:28
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answer #5
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answered by i luv penguins =0p 6
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someone who didn't like the 'v' in vindicted.
2006-08-30 03:48:03
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answer #6
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answered by flit 4
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