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India became independent in 1947, Burma in 1948, Ghana and Malaya in 1957, and Nigeria in 1960. Etc

2006-08-30 00:07:49 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

10 answers

WHAT DO U MEAN?
SORRY I DONT UNDER STAND

2006-08-30 00:13:56 · answer #1 · answered by why dont u hear me? 2 · 0 0

Difficult to answer accurately as it's a What If? question.

In addition, "the world" was not under British rule and never has been. In the time period you are talking about the UK had already lost rule over Australia, New Zealand and Canada peacefully, the North American Territories through a traitors uprising and South Africa through Dutch insurgents (though their treatment of the Dutch IMHO did warrant this, this was not so for the rich american traitors who were the lowest taxed and indeed somewhat best treated of ALL British colonies). Check a map - geographically, population and resource-wise the UK had ALREADY lost most of its empire.

However..


After WW2 the US govt saw itself rightly as the winner, it had almost its entire national infrastructure undamaged by war unlike the majority of Europe. They saw an opportunity to the take control of the world economy away from the UK and Europe and replace this control mechanism with their own, remember pre WW2 the US was an isolationist state much like North Korea and Iran are currently, steadfastly refusing to involve itself is international issues.

After the hostilites ended the following happened:

The US insisted of the break up of the European colonial empires including (or perhaps especially) those of the Allied nations. This ensured the rich and undamaged US has an easier ride taking control of those former European empire colonies for its own use.

The US insisted on the dollar being used for international transactions, later and most importantly -oil (the reason the US invaded Iraq was because S.Hussein tried to sell oil in Euros instead of dollars - Iraq holds 2nd largest oil reserves in the world and this would have seriously damaged US control over world economic interests). This held back European currencies long enough for US control of world finance in most areas.

The UK no longer had enough money to control its empire, not giving up at least some of it would have led to civil wars and indeed did in many places anyway. India supplied most of the wealth that ran the Empire, without it there was no Empire, once that was gone the rest was going to slowly fall away regardless.

These are some of the reasons why the UK lost its Empire.

I think (opinion not fact), that the Empire would have started to crumble anyway though the time scale would have probably been a lot longer. Empires always fail eventually, culture and ideas change, govts change, even weather or disaster can destroy the largest of human operations, for an example look to the South American Empires that drought utterley wiped out in the middle ages.

For more info please check out :

Empire: How Britain Made the Modern World by Niall Ferguson

Colossus: The Rise and Fall of The American Empire by Niall Ferguson

I have not added these as sources as my reply comes from memory ( i am at work so have no access to source) and my reply should as such be considered as informed opinion not fact.

Should anyone find any errors on what i have said please list them with the correction and source, as I would rather be corrected than give any false information.

2006-08-30 08:15:29 · answer #2 · answered by The Pirate Captain 3 · 0 0

Yes.

Developing nations will always seek their independence once they are strong enough to sustain their way of life without outside support. It is because of national pride and a need to assert their identity not because of the weakness of the current 'rulers' although it may be that this needs to happen in order to tip the balance at a specific time.

2006-08-30 07:30:27 · answer #3 · answered by enzuigiriuk 4 · 0 0

WWII was a war against extremist dictators that ended in 1945. The first of your examples didn't become independent until two years later, so I cant see the link.

2006-08-30 07:15:47 · answer #4 · answered by Jeff Lebowski 2 · 0 0

although the world war played an important role in the destruction of the British empire, by the beginning of the 20th century Britain was no longer the worlds dominant power, being surpassed by the US and Germany

2006-08-30 07:21:45 · answer #5 · answered by tsar 2 · 1 1

Ok Yeah know what. Britain rules the world. Do not tell Blair he thinks he is God now. We don't rule anything. Even the UK is ruled by Europe.

2006-08-30 07:46:05 · answer #6 · answered by deadly 4 · 0 0

Possibly; although if we'd lost then they'd be ruled by the Nazis still.

2006-08-30 07:28:50 · answer #7 · answered by sarah c 7 · 0 0

the independence of former colonies would have taken place anyway
don't thin WW2 had anything to do with it

2006-08-30 07:13:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

only because it became too expensive to keep

2006-08-30 07:14:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think they had planned to do it before that.

2006-08-30 07:17:43 · answer #10 · answered by mixturenumber1 4 · 0 0

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