They either put down a large down payment; they bought it on financed seller terms; the tax lien and foreclosure may not be on the credit report yet; somebody co-signed for them like a parent or other family member or perhaps you have not all the information you think you do.
Otherwise it in highly not likely they made a purchase using the usual financial terms. I've dealth with all kinds of people and all kinds of credit in my business. It takes a showing of lots of responsibility to get a mortgage by somebody or a sizeable pledge of assets to get that kind of mortgage. Otherwise everybody would be doing it.
2006-08-29 18:43:56
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answer #1
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answered by hithere2ya 5
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Terms. Sometimes owners will lease-to-own, or they had enough money for a huge downpayment and took the higher interest rate.
Buying a home isn't impossible for bad credit, but it is costlier.
2006-08-30 00:38:15
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answer #2
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answered by zencherry67 3
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Put the house in someone else's name like a relative.
Either that, or you have to be Donald Trump or someone with the reputation that he has. Ex. he went broke, but still was able to get HUGE loans and investors backing him. Why? Because he proved himself once, and after getting re-established, he's back at it again!
2006-08-30 00:39:24
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answer #3
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answered by toronto_guy77 2
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it is possible, many lenders will lend the money for people after foreclosure . maybe this person buy this house using somebody else name with a good credit?
2006-08-30 00:42:23
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answer #4
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answered by bianca 4
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Purchased in a corporate or another person's name?
Peace!
2006-08-30 00:37:54
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answer #5
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answered by carole 7
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I would say no, but I'm sure stranger things have happened. You have to know the right people. (I sure don't!)
2006-08-30 00:37:44
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answer #6
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answered by butrcupps 6
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because they didn't pay their mortgage
or maybe they had a mortgage with ballon payment and they didn't have enought to pay it
2006-08-30 00:37:57
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answer #7
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answered by christiansareawesome 4
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