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8 answers

vodka....and vine, i mean wine.

2006-08-29 17:12:22 · answer #1 · answered by Sally Pepsi 4 · 0 1

Bpguy gives the informational background but his answer is incomplete. It was not just a question of staying committed to their alliance. The more interesting question is why did they end up being allied explicitly against Germany and its allies? (The Triple Entente documents clearly stipulated that the alliance was against the Triple Alliance). France had to defeat Germany, regain Alsace-Lorraine, regain its pride by avenging its 1871 defeat, and to hamper the rapid expansion of Germany's economy and its thirst for new colonies (especially French colonies ie Moroccan crises 1906 and1911). For France, it was therefore a question of security (Germany was too agressive) and pride. A victory over Germany could also change the balance of power in continental Europe in favor of France, as Germany had been the dominant country since 1871. Russia had to protect its Slavic brothers under Austrian yoke. Russia, "mother of all Slavs" wanted to free them from the German-speakers' domination. Russia also thrived to access the Mediterranean Sea by capturing Istanbul, which was held by the Turks. Russia and Austria were competeing to dismantle the Ottoman Empire. Thus, Russia was violently antagonistic with Austria, but not that much with Germany, its ex-ally. Little did these 2 countries know that they were to lose so many soldiers and lose their power forever. (France 1,4M dead Russia 2M).

2006-08-30 02:03:47 · answer #2 · answered by timarnera 2 · 1 0

The most they could have gained would have been relief from Germany.

Remember, this was the war that involved all those entangled alliances -- the Triple Alliance, the Triple Entente, etc. Because Europe had been in an arms race for a decade, it just took a spark to blow up the powder keg.

Briefly, former German chancellor Otto von Bismarck, who unified Germany in 1871 and defeated France in the related Franco-Prussian War, used alliances in an attempt to isolate France in the world community.

For its part, France was afraid of German militarism, and it allied with Russia against Germany.

Russia had historical ties to Slavic Serbia, and was a bitter foe of Austria-Hungary, which bordered both Russia and Serbia.

Germany and Austria-Hungary were allied, but Kaiser Wilhelm called the shots.

And just to round things out, Britain and Italy also entered into alliances (on opposite sides), partly for colonial/imperialistic reasons, and partly due to the arms race.

The system of alliances was in some ways analogous to the U.S. Cold War "containment policy" involving NATO and the Warsaw Pact countries. Each side wanted to protect against the other side.

Given the tenor of the times, all involved had elaborate defensive plans, set well in advance, and at least one country -- Germany -- had mobilization and invasion plans worked out in advance. All this was like gears in a machine ... start it up, and lots of things happen almost automatically.

After Serbian nationalist Gavrilo Princep assassinated Austrian Grand Duke Franz Ferdinand, Austria, with the kaiser's permission, declared war on Serbia.

That was enough to induce Russia to mobilize. (Mobilization was a big deal.) Russian involvement pulled in France, and, of course, Austrian involvement pulled in Germany. And so it went.

Back to your question ... both Russia and France became involved because of mutual defense agreements. And underlying all of that was mutual mistrust of German militarism. The best they could hope for was a weakened Germany.

2006-08-29 18:56:10 · answer #3 · answered by bpiguy 7 · 0 0

France would have regained the lost border territory of Alsace-Lorraine and thus would have regained her sense of national pride after losing the Franco-Prussian War. She also would have defeated (or weakened) a strong, warlike neighbor which threatened her own borders and her overseas colonies. Russia was a large but weak country, only recently defeated by Japan in a navel war in the east; Germany had designs on Russia's western territories so the Czarist government knew it had to use the Austro-Serbian conflict as a pretext to stand up to Germany itself.

2006-08-29 20:22:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

World War I was about re-distributing the world.

France could have gained Germany's African colonies, but they were especially eager on Elzas-Lotharingia, which was occupied only in 1871. A little desire for revenge contributed too, and the will to defeat Germany for once and for all.

Russia's dream was the Balkan. After the Ottaman Empire's fall there were many "new" independent states. Both Austria-Hungary and Russia longed for these territories, and the first one was faster.

2006-08-29 17:26:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Russia needed a seaport to the West and France needed to protect it's a$s from the Russians.

2006-08-29 17:21:40 · answer #6 · answered by squaregirl30 2 · 0 0

Can I Have Your Car?

2006-08-29 17:12:52 · answer #7 · answered by Patrick C 4 · 0 0

Sorry, I can't help you with your homework ?

2006-08-29 17:25:47 · answer #8 · answered by no nickname 6 · 0 0

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