Under what circumstances would someone be allowed to represent themselves in court?

Answer 1

If they are stupid or have lots of practice in law.

Answer 2

First they must sign a binding waiver that states that they understand that they had the right to an attorney and gave it up. Then, witnesses (2 or more) also sign the document in front of the judge. Before the document is signed the judge/magistrate will counsel the defendant to make absolutely certain that they understand what they are doing. No one MUST have an attorney represent them. In criminal court, the procedure above I have described, such documentation is required to keep people from being able to appeal after they have wilfully chosen not to have an attorney.

Answer 3

Anyone can represent themselves in a court of law, however if you choose to do this I advise that you study long and hard on whatever you are representing yourself about. Also, get a book on legal terminoplogy so you are sure to present your case properly to the court.

Answer 4

Any. And I don't know about the "fool" comment. I went Pro Se on my divorce and saved myself $690.00 - I don't think that would quailify me as a fool. A good site to check out on Pro Se issues..
www.perkel.com
Look under the Pro Se section ~ naturally.

Answer 5

They only need to demonstrate a basic understanding of legal principles, and that they have made the choice voluntarily and with awareness of the potential consequences.

Answer 6

It depends:Criminal or Tort. Either way it is called an Information Charge.

Answer 7

Anyone can. He who does has a fool for a client.

It's a saying, squaregirl30. Look it up...

Answer 8

CIRCUMSTANCE BEING THAT YOU WERE CHARGED WITH SOMETHING