No. e^x^2=e^(x^2) by convention.
2sin(8x) cos(8x)=sin(16x) by the sine double angle formula.
2006-08-29 15:30:36
·
answer #1
·
answered by mathematician 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
The answer to your first question is no, if I understand what you have written correctly. The RHS of the equation asks for the value of e to x squared,while the LHS asks for e to two x, as when you raise a power to a power, you multiply the two powers together.
As for your second question, in this case 2sin(kx)*cos(kx) is a trigonometric identity, which equals sin(2kx), so in this case it equals sin(16x).
2006-08-29 22:34:03
·
answer #2
·
answered by Noachr 2
·
0⤊
1⤋
(e^x)^2 = e^(2x)
2sin8x*cos8x = sin(2*8x) = sin(16x)
2006-08-29 23:15:27
·
answer #3
·
answered by qwert 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
(e^x)^2 = e^(2x) not e^(x^2)
Use the identity sin(2a) = 2*sina*cosa; from this you can see that 2*sin(8x)*cos(8x) = sin(16x)
2006-08-29 22:34:42
·
answer #4
·
answered by gp4rts 7
·
0⤊
1⤋