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2006-08-29 14:22:55 · 7 answers · asked by chamiqua42 1 in Education & Reference Homework Help

7 answers

The final answer is 2/cos x.

(cos^2 x/(cos x+sinxcosx)) + ((1+2sinx+sin^2 x)/(cos x+sinxcosx)

(1+2sinx+sin^2 x+cos^2 x)/cos x+sinxcosx

(2+2sinx)/cos x+sinxcosx

(2(1+sinx))/(cosx(1+sinx))

2/cosx

TADA!

2006-08-29 14:34:50 · answer #1 · answered by Chelsea 2 · 0 0

First follow PART of Karl's advice, the part where he said, "make a common denominator of (1+sinx)(cosx)" (Hope you know how to do that.)

Then put the numerator into simplest terms. (Note that
sinx squared plus cosx squared equals 1. Once you've applied that rule, you should FACTOR the numerator.)

Finally, find a term that appears in both the numerator and the denominator, so that term can be removed from both numerator and denominator to find the final answer.

If your final answer has only a one-digit integer in the numerator, and only cosx in the denominator (and sinx doesn't appear at all), then you have done it right.

2006-08-29 14:40:06 · answer #2 · answered by actuator 5 · 0 0

uncomplicated denominator [(cosx)(a million-sinx) + (cosx)(a million+sinx)]/(a million-(sinx)^2) observe: a million-(sinx)^2 ==(cosx)^2 element [cosx(a million-sinx)(a million+sinx)]/[(cosx)^2] simplify [cosx(a million-(sinx)^2)]/[(cosx)^2] [(cosx)^3]/[(cosx)^2] cosx

2016-11-06 01:45:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

bah, I don't want to, but make a common denominator of (1+sinx)(cosx), that should lead you to your answer.


Also take into consideration that cos x/sin x = cot x and sin x/cos x = tan x


Not too hard...

2006-08-29 14:27:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

equals headache

2006-08-29 14:25:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

oooo....someone didnt do their summer homework....oooo.....

2006-08-29 14:26:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

what??????

2006-08-29 14:25:04 · answer #7 · answered by ndanylevich01 2 · 0 1

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