Women's suffrage is not the same as suffering. Suffrage is a person's right to vote. Women got the right to vote because they fought for it and convinced the men that women should have equal rights. Anorexia and bullimia became a societal problem only about forty years after women were granted suffrage.
2006-08-29 10:19:02
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answer #1
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answered by Aloofly Goofy 6
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i think of the time span is lots lots broader than that. Society has been liberalizing (interior the unique sense of the term) through fact the Reformation and Enlightenment, via the yank and French Revolutions, and so on. women persons's suffrage circulation began interior the 1800s. It became into one spot on the timeline of human freedom.
2016-12-17 19:23:49
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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I think that women were concerned about being treated the same as men and gaining the right to vote not because of an eating disorder, but more likely because they felt it unfair that they should be subject to the laws created by their government when they had no say in the development of their government.
2006-08-29 10:24:25
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answer #3
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answered by heather v 2
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Women's Suffrage came about because women got tired of taking the kind of crap that men like you dished out by not letting them vote!!!
2006-08-29 10:22:48
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answer #4
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answered by jiffypop88 4
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Hmmm. Connection between women voting and eating disorders. Hmmmm.
2006-08-29 10:18:51
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answer #5
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answered by Nefertiti 5
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NO!! Where did you get that bit of trivia? Crawl back under your rock!
2006-09-05 02:31:30
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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This is by far the stupidest question I have seen on this site... EVER.
2006-08-29 10:20:25
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answer #7
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answered by God of Fire 2
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Too bad your mother didn't believe in abortions.
2006-08-29 10:24:15
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Ah? Sorry, I gotta puke...
2006-08-29 10:19:29
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answer #9
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answered by kichka_2002 4
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no lol
2006-08-29 10:20:12
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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