went to him. I was only 16 at the time, so I didn't know any better, and noone in my family seemed to want to pursue the matter, so I let it go. If the house was in both of their names should I have inherited half of it? If he sold the house can I sue him for half of the sale price?
2006-08-29 10:04:21 · 9 answers · asked by martin h 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Circumstances vary from State to State, and certain conditions come into play. The best advice anyone here or anywhere can give you is to direct you to an attorney who specializes in the field. There is no short cut. Call the Legal Board of your state and get a list of attorneys that specialize in the field. Good luck (yes, you are entitled to your mother's share... under certain circumstances).
2006-08-29 10:19:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
See if you can trace the title back and see how title was held when your mom passed away, do this BEFORE you get legal advice so you are prepared at the consultation to give the attorney the information he needs. Also go to the courthouse near where your mom lived and check records there under your mom's name, see if there was a will or a probate proceeding.
You can determine if it was held in joint tenancy from the deed recorded. Some states have access to those records online. Most California counties do, not the actual deed but the index includes tranferors and transferees and type of doc. Some assessor's offices also provide titling info in some states.
Good luck.
2006-08-29 10:27:56 · answer #2 · answered by Maisy 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If they bought the property as Joint Tenants, then NO. The surviving partner becomes the sole owner - very common with people who live together. (the above answer is wrong, in that in Joint Tenancy, even if one of the owners specifies an heir they have no legal right to pass on their share of the house.)
If they purchased it as Tenants in Common then she would have been able to specify a beneficiary in case of her death. More common when someone has heirs - if this is the case, there would have had to of been a will to specify that you get her share or it would revert to her boyfriend. It's still past the statute of limitations.
2006-08-29 10:18:44 · answer #3 · answered by dlil 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In joint tenancy, the property usually automatically passes to the other party -- i.e., the boyfriend -- without entering probate. Unless there was a will that specifically transferred her interest to you, you have no standing. But check with a lawyer, because the laws may be different where you are or when the transfer actually happened.
2006-08-29 10:15:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
16 years,,, how much worth is the house 10, 15 millions? I think you have been ill advised, somebody is planting that seed in your heart, let it go, it may get you more grieve than pleasure
2006-08-29 10:23:49 · answer #5 · answered by class4 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It depends on how they termed the agreement. I would talk to a real estate attorney in your state. They can tell you what your rights are.
2006-08-29 10:21:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Find a real estate attorney. I would think since they weren't married, you could have gotten part of it, but now? You should still check.
2006-08-29 10:10:55 · answer #7 · answered by Papa John 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
depends on how the will was written, but now the statute of limitations has ended your claim
2006-08-29 10:09:31 · answer #8 · answered by Dwight D J 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
talk to a lawyer.
2006-08-29 10:07:54 · answer #9 · answered by crystalfaria11306 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋