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If someone has amnesia, then how come he or she remembers the words of the language and can speak?

And is it true that if an amnesiac is traumatized by the same situation through which he/she lost their memory (an accident or a banf for instance), he/she can get it back?

2006-08-29 03:13:13 · 4 answers · asked by Ducklet Cat 1 in Social Science Psychology

4 answers

Boopie is on the right track, memories are stored in the hippocampus, so amnesia is caused by either temporary damage or destruction to that area of the brain. Language is controlled by the prefrontal conrtex, as well as wernicke's and broca's areas, which are not located in the same part of the brain as the hippocampus. that's the most scientific explanation i can give you.
as for recovering memories, i've never heard the theory that you describe per se, but it makes sense. memory has the quality of being state and context dependent, which means that often times we can recover old memories when they occur in a similar context to the original event, or when one is in the original state of mind. that's true for any lost memory, not just one lost through amnesia. there are two types of amnesia: retrograde, and anterograde. in retrograde amnesia you lose past memories, which are most often recovered in the order of most recent, to the last. in anterograde amnesia you lose the ability to form new memories.
hope that answers your question.

2006-08-29 08:22:46 · answer #1 · answered by MIzzy 4 · 0 0

It depends upon who is answering, of course, but I will give you my take. Trauma is an experience wherein ones MIND perceived that a deeply repressed misperception is threatened. That is, some previously repressed trauma is stimulated by some incident in ones current life, and to prevent the release of the repressed trauma, the present one is also repressed.... and this means cutting off ones awareness of those elements that are part of the threat.

The level of ones amnesia then reflects the level of this cut-off. There is little in language that is threatening, and it would be sufficient for the purpose of ones MIND to simply block certain words, phrases, or memories... while leaving others available.

Effective therapeutic intervention involves facilitating an individual in revisiting some childhood trauma within the individuals MIND realm, where the pain and grief of that trauma is re-experienced, and in the experiencing of it, the "misperceived" nature of it effects its elimination as a source for that individuals problems relative to that particular trauma.

The efficacy of placing someone in a position of experiencing some physical trauma to "treat" the effects of trauma would be inadvisable in my opinion... because the effects of trauma are means by which ones MIND is taking care of a person. To address the problem is an inside job, not an outside one.

2006-08-29 03:41:18 · answer #2 · answered by docjp 6 · 0 0

The language centers of the brain are in a different area than the emotional ones. The hippocampus is responsible for memory however the language... Crap, I forgot. This is pathetic...

2006-08-29 04:38:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because the part of the brain that contains memories is different from the area that language is stored in.

No, not true.

2006-08-29 08:37:40 · answer #4 · answered by stargirl 4 · 0 0

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